Uttar Pradesh Lecturers Exam., 2009

Uttar Pradesh Lecturers Exam., 2009
(Held on 24-1-2010)
Agriculture : Solved Paper

1. Jalpriya is a variety of—
(A) Maize
(B) Jowar
(C) Paddy
(D) Barley
Ans : (C)

2. Sugarcane + Potato is an intercropping system of—
(A) Autumn season
(B) Zaid season
(C) Spring season
(D) Rainy season
Ans : (A)

3. Seed-rate of potato per hectare is—
(A) 25 quintal/hectare
(B) 10 quintal/hectare
(C) 15 quintal/hectare
(D) 40 quintal/hectare
Ans : (D)


4. Deficiency symptoms of calcium on plants first appear at—
(A) Lower leaves
(B) Middle leaves
(C) Terminal leaves
(D) All leaves
Ans : (C)

5. Which weedicide is used to kill broad leaf weeds in wheat ?
(A) 2, 4 - D.S.S. (WPSS)
(B) 2, 4, 5 - T
(C) 2, 4 - DB
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

6. Maya is the variety of—
(A) Potato
(B) Gram
(C) Pea
(D) Mustard
Ans : (D)

7. The weed that causes Asthma is—
(A) Hirankhuri
(B) Bathua
(C) Parthenium
(D) Krishna Neel
Ans : (C)

8. Which crop requires maximum amount of nitrogen ?
(A) Potato
(B) Wheat
(C) Barley
(D) Sugarcane
Ans : (D)

9. First dwarf variety of paddy developed in India is—
(A) Jaya
(B) Saket-4
(C) Govind
(D) Narendra-97
Ans : (C)

10. Sprinkler irrigation is suitable, where the soil has—
(A) Clayey texture
(B) Loamy texture
(C) Undulating topography
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

11. Endosulphan is also known as—
(A) Lindane
(B) Thiodan
(C) Aldrin
(D) B.H.C.
Ans : (B)

12. Which of the following is systemic poison ?
(A) Metasystox
(B) Phosphomidan
(C) Phorate
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

13. DDVP is known as—
(A) Nuvan
(B) Malathion
(C) Thiodan
(D) Sulfex
Ans : (A)

14. Seed treatment with Vitavex is the main controlling method of—
(A) Loose smut
(B) Rust
(C) Downy mildew
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

15. Covered smut of barley is a disease of—
(A) Externally seed-borne
(B) Internally seed-borne
(C) Air-borne
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

16. Which of the following cakes is not edible ?
(A) Castor cake
(B) Mustard cake
(C) Sesame cake
(D) Groundnut cake
Ans : (A)

17. In India, about 142 million hectare land is under—
(A) Cultivation
(B) Waste land
(C) Forest
(D) Eroded land
Ans : (A)

18. The headquarters of Indian Meteorological Department was established in 1875 at—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Pune
(D) Calcutta
Ans : (D)

19. Moisture condensed in small drops upon cool surface is called—
(A) Hail
(B) Dew
(C) Snow
(D) Fog
Ans : (B)

20. How many agro-climatic zones (ACZ) are found in India ?
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 15
(D) 20
Ans : (C)

21. Tilt angle of a disc plough is generally—
(A) 10°
(B) 15°
(C) 20°
(D) 45°
Ans : (D)

22. Pudding is done to—
(A) Reduce percolation of water
(B) Pulverise and levelling soil
(C) Kill weeds
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

23. The Community Development Programme (CDP) was started in India on—
(A) 2nd October, 1950
(B) 2nd October, 1952
(C) 2nd October, 1951
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

24. The main unit of Integrated Rural Development Programme is—
(A) Family
(B) Village
(C) Block
(D) District
Ans : (B)

25. Element of Communication is—
(A) Message
(B) Feedback
(C) Channel
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

26. The first Kshetriya Gramin Bank (KGB) was opened in India is—
(A) 1972
(B) 1980
(C) 1975
(D) 1969
Ans : (C)

27. The main function of NABARD is—
(A) Farmers' loaning
(B) Agricultural research
(C) Refinancing to agricultural financing institutions
(D) Development of agriculture
Ans : (C)

28. Rent theory of profit was given by—
(A) Hawley
(B) C.P. Blacker
(C) Tanssig
(D) F.A. Walker
Ans : (D)

29. In L.D.R., the profit will be maximum when—
(A) MC = MP
(B) MC > MP
(C) MP = TP
(D) MP > TP
Ans : (D)

30. The period of 11th Five Year Plan is—
(A) 2000-2005
(B) 2002-2007
(C) 2007-2012
(D) 2008-2012
Ans : (C)

31. Acid rain contains mainly—
(A) PO₄
(B) NO₂
(C) NO₃
(D) CH₄
Ans : (B)

32. Cell Organelle found only in plants are—
(A) Mitochondria
(B) Golgi complex
(C) Ribosomes
(D) Plastids
Ans : (D)

33. Proteins are synthesized in—
(A) Centrosomes
(B) Ribosomes
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Golgi bodies
Ans : (B)

34. Milk fever is caused due to the deficiency of—
(A) P
(B) Ca
(C) Mg
(D) K
Ans : (B)

35. Milk sugar is a type of—
(A) Glucose
(B) Sucrose
(C) Lactose
(D) Fructose
Ans : (C)

36. Muriate of Potash is—
(A) K₂SO₄
(B) KCl
(C) K₂HPO₄
(D) KNO₃
Ans : (B)

37. Azotobacter fixes atmospheric nitrogen in the soil by—
(A) Symbiotically
(B) Non-symbiotically
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

38. The chemical formula of iron pyrites is—
(A) FeSO₄
(B) FeS
(C) FeS₂
(D) Fe₂(SO₄)₃
Ans : (C)

39. Rock phosphates are used in—
(A) Saline soil
(B) Sodic soil
(C) Acidic soil
(D) Neutral soil
Ans : (C)

40. Intervenous chlorosis is caused due to the deficiency of—
(A) N
(B) Mg
(C) S
(D) Fe
Ans : (D)

41. Kinnow is the hybrid variety of—
(A) Citrus
(B) Orange
(C) Mandarin
(D) Lemon
Ans : (C)

42. The permanent preservative, which is used for preservation of fruit and vegetables, is—
(A) Sodium chloride
(B) Potassium metabisulphate
(C) Potassium sulphate
(D) Sugar
Ans : (B)

43. Whip tail disease of cauliflower is caused by deficiency of—
(A) Nitrogen
(B) Boron
(C) Molybdenum
(D) Zinc
Ans : (C)

44. The word ‘Agriculture’ is derived from—
(A) Greek
(B) Latin
(C) Arabic
(D) French
Ans : (B)

45. Motha (Grass nut) belongs to the family of—
(A) Cruciferae
(B) Tiliaceae
(C) Cyperaceae
(D) Graminaceae
Ans : (C)

46. Which of the followings are short day crops ?
(A) Maize, Lobia, Bajra
(B) Wheat, Mustard, Gram
(C) Moong, Soybean, Bajra
(D) Wheat, Soybean, Bajra
Ans : (B)

47. What is the sequence of C₄ plants ?
(A) Sudangrass – Sugarcane –Paddy – Bajra
(B) Sugarcane – Maize – Sudangrass – Bajra
(C) Sugarcane – Cotton – Paddy– Maize
(D) Cotton – Maize – Bajra –Sugarcane
Ans : (B)

48. Match List-I (crops) with List-II (water requirement) and select your answer from the code given below—
List-I(a) Jowar
(b) Soybean
(c) Cotton
(d) Groundnut
List–II
1. 140 mm – 300 mm
2. 350 mm – 450 mm
3. 200 mm – 300 mm
4. 300 mm – 350 mm
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 4 2 3 1
(C) 1 4 2 3
(D) 3 1 4 2
Ans : (C)

49. In which state, are there biggest area, highest production and number of Sugar Mills in relation to Sugarcane ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans : (A)

50. Which is not prepared by potato ?
(A) Acetic Acid
(B) Paper
(C) Wine
(D) Fanina
Ans : (B)

51. Uttar Pradesh is occupying which place in India, for Guava production ?
(A) Second
(B) First
(C) Third
(D) Fifth
Ans : (A)

52. Which of the following is TPS variety of Potato ?
(A) JH 222
(B) Chipsona-II
(C) Anand
(D) HPS-1/113
Ans : (D)

53. What is VAM ?
(A) Virus
(B) Bacteria
(C) Algae
(D) Fungi
Ans : (D)

54. What is the main function of zinc in the plants ?
(A) Synthesis of nitrogen
(B) Synthesis of phosphorus
(C) Required for synthesis of Tryptophos
(D) To increase activity of the boron
Ans : (C)

55. What is the area in floriculture (in 000 hectare) in India ?
(A) 40 – 50
(B) 60 – 80
(C) 100 – 120
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

56. Which of the following factors does not affect the nitrification ?
(A) Air
(B) Seed
(C) Temperature
(D) Moisture
Ans : (B)

57. Which is the correct sequence of soil erosion ?
(A) Rill – Sheet – Gulley
(B) Gulley – Sheet – Rill
(C) Sheet – Rill – Gulley
(D) Sheet – Gulley – Rill
Ans : (C)

58. Zinc Sulphate (ZnSO₄) should not be mixed with—
(A) D.A.P.
(B) Compost fertilizer
(C) Ammonium Chloride
(D) Urea
Ans : (A)

59. Insecticides are specific inhibitors of—
(A) Excretory system
(B) Digestive system
(C) Nervous system
(D) Blood Circulatory system
Ans : (D)

60. The credit for the success of Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVK) goes to—
(A) Dr. R. S. Paroda
(B) Dr. Chandrika Prasad
(C) Dr. Mohan Singh Mehta
(D) Dr. Mangla Rai
Ans : (D)

61. Cauliflower belongs to the family—
(A) Cruciferae
(B) poacae
(C) Malvaceae
(D) Leguminaceae
Ans : (A)

62. Which type of soil is best for knolkhol ?
(A) Loam
(B) Clayey loam
(C) Silty clayey loam
(D) Clay
Ans : (B)

63. Which of the following soil type is most suitable for garlic cultivation ?
(A) Loamy sand
(B) Sandy loam
(C) Loam
(D) Clay
Ans : (B)

64. Average planting distance (R P) of guava is—
(A) 5 m 5 m
(B) 6 m 6 m
(C) 8 m 8 m
(D) 10 m 10 m
Ans : (B)

65. Which of the following soil type has the highest field capacity ?
(A) Loam
(B) Silty loam
(C) Clayey loam
(D) Clay
Ans : (D)

66. The trade name of phorate is—
(A) Temic
(B) Thiodan
(C) Phortox
(D) Metasystox
Ans : (C)

67. The sprayers are cleaned before use by—
(A) 1% chlorine water
(B) 1% hydrochloric acid
(C) 1% ammonia water
(D) 1% bromine water
Ans : (B)

68. The cyanogas pump is a /an—
(A) Duster
(B) Fumigator
(C) Sprayer
(D) Emulsifier
Ans : (D)

69. The main reason of Irish Famine in Potato was—
(A) Late Blight disease
(B) Bacterial Blight disease
(C) Blast disease
(D) Ear Cockle disease
Ans : (A)

70. The instrument, which is used for sowing of seed with fertilizer together at a time, is—
(A) Seed drill
(B) Dibbler
(C) Seed sowing behind plough
(D) Ferti-cum Seed drill
Ans : (D)

71. Seed treatment is done to control—
(A) Soil-borne disease
(B) Air-borne disease
(C) Seed-borne disease
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

72. Salt tolerant crop is—
(A) Cowpea
(B) Field pea
(C) Garlic
(D) Longmelon
Ans : (A)

73. Which of the following is not a dairy breed of cattle ?
(A) Sahiwal
(B) Sindhi
(C) Nagore
(D) All these
Ans : (D)

74. Stored grains can be saved from insect damage, if the grain moisture content is—
(A) <> 10%
(C) 10%
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

75. Which of the following pesticides has been banned in India ?
(A) Rogor
(B) DDT
(C) Metasystox
(D) Dimecron
Ans : (B)

76. Pulses fit well in cropping system as they are—
(A) Short duration crops
(B) Disease resistant crops
(C) Long duration crops
(D) Moisture stress resistant crops
Ans : (D)

77. Wheat is a—
(A) Cash crop
(B) Cereal crop
(C) Covered crop
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

78. Autumn sugarcane is planted in month of—
(A) February-March
(B) July
(C) October
(D) December
Ans : (C)

79. Seed-rate for timely sown wheat is—
(A) 75 kg/ha
(B) 100 kg/ha
(C) 125 kg/ha
(D) 150 kg/ha
Ans : (C)

80. Most critical stage in wheat for irrigation is—
(A) C.R.I.
(B) Flowering
(C) Milk
(D) Dough
Ans : (A)

81. Name of most popular variety of wheat in Uttar Pradesh is—
(A) PBW – 343
(B) U.P. – 2338
(C) K – 7903
(D) K – 9107
Ans : (B)

82. KPG – 59 (Udai) is a variety of—
(A) Field pea
(B) Vegetable pea
(C) Lentil
(D) Gram
Ans : (D)

83. In plain, Rajma is cultivated during—
(A) Kharif
(B) Rabi
(C) Zaid
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

84. Which crop is recommended for Zaid season cultivation in Uttar Pradesh ?
(A) Vegetable pea
(B) Groundnut
(C) Barley
(D) Lentil
Ans : (B)

85. The most efficient use of potassium is achieved by—
(A) Broadcasting at the sowing time
(B) Top dressing after one month of sowing
(C) Basal placement at the sowing time
(D) Foliar spray
Ans : (C)

86. The term ‘Extension’ was first used in—
(A) U.K.
(B) U.S.A.
(C) India
(D) France
Ans : (B)

87. The first K.V.K. (Krishi Vigyan Kendra) in India was established in—
(A) Bombay
(B) Port Blair
(C) Pondicherry
(D) Madras
Ans : (C)

88. ATMA is related to—
(A) NARP
(B) NAARM
(C) NREP
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

89. Albert Mayer is the name associated with—
(A) Nilokheri Development Project
(B) Firka Development Project
(C) Etawah Pilot Project
(D) Shriniketan Project
Ans : (C)

90. Co-operative Credit Societies Act was passed in India in—
(A) 1902
(B) 1904
(C) 1906
(D) 1912
Ans : (D)

91. Maximum photosynthesis takes place in—
(A) Blue light
(B) Red light
(C) Violet light
(D) Green light
Ans : (D)

92. Farm Planning means—
(A) Farm Budgetting
(B) Cropping pattern
(C) Type of enterprises
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

93. The first product of photosynthesis in C₃ plant is—
(A) Pyruvic acid
(B) Phospho-glyceric acid
(C) Oxalo-acetic acid
(D) Succinic acid
Ans : (B)

94. Bending of plants towards light is called—
(A) Phototropism
(B) Vernalisation
(C) Photo-respiration
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

95. Germination is inhibited by—
(A) Red light
(B) Blue light
(C) U.V. light
(D) I.R. light
Ans : (C)

96. The best method of milking is—
(A) Knuckling method
(B) Fisting method
(C) Stripping method
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)

97. Line breeding is a type of—
(A) Inbreeding
(B) Outbreeding
(C) Natural breeding
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

98. Match List-I with List-II and select answer from the codes given below—
List-I
(a) White Revolution
(b) Grey Revolution
(c) Blue Revolution
(d) Green Revolution
List-II
1. Fertilizer production
2. Fish production
3. Cereal production
4. Milk production
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans : (A)

99. ‘Tharparkar’ breed of cow is—
(A) Milch breed
(B) Working breed
(C) Dual purpose breed
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

100. Cow and buffalo belong to the family—
(A) Bovidae
(B) Suidae
(C) Equidae
(D) Cammelidae
Ans : (A)

101. What is the contribution of Animal Husbandry Sector in the agricultural growth ?
(A) 10%
(B) 12% – 15%
(C) 7% – 9%
(D) 5%
Ans : (C)

102. How many labourers are required to run a 30 cows milch herd ?
(A) 8
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 10
Ans : (B)

103. What is the availability of per day per capita milk in India presently (2008-09) ?
(A) 229 gram
(B) 239 gram
(C) 219 gram
(D) 252 gram
Ans : (D)

104. Which place is occupied by India in egg production ?
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Ans : (A)

105. How much calories (cal) may be obtained from 100 gram chicken egg ?
(A) 175 cal
(B) 180 cal
(C) 160 cal
(D) 130 cal
Ans : (C)

106. Main function of biofertilizer is—
(A) To increase chemical process
(B) To increase physiological process
(C) To increase biological process
(D) To increase photosynthesis process
Ans : (C)

107. How much tomato average production (q.) may be yield from one hectare ?
(A) 100
(B) 105-150
(C) 250
(D) 160-275
Ans : (D)

108. Which type of soil is found near the canal banks ?
(A) Acidic and alkaline
(B) Acidic
(C) Alkaline
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

109. Which one is not biofertilizer ?
(A) Multiflex
(B) PSB
(C) Vermicompost
(D) NADEP
Ans : (A)

110. In which form is nitrogen absorbed by paddy under waterlogged condition ?
(A) NH₄ ion
(B) Nitrate ion
(C) NO₂ ion
(D) N₂
Ans : (B)

111. Which one of the following do not relate to groundnut ?
(A) Brazil
(B) 2n = 40
(C) Pink disease
(D) Tikka disease
Ans : (C)

112. Which of the following is produced highest in India ?
(A) Mango
(B) Banana
(C) Papaya
(D) Grapes
Ans : (A)

113. The optimum temperature for the Banana crop is—
(A) 30°C
(B) 23°C
(C) 21•5°C
(D) 26•5°C
Ans : (B)

114. Which one of the following varieties has been selected to develop Narendra Aonla-6 variety ?
(A) Chakaiya
(B) Hathijhool
(C) Banarasi
(D) Narendra Aonla-6
Ans : (D)

115. Red soil is poor in which of the following nutrients ?
(A) Phosphorus and Sulphur
(B) Phosphorus and Nitrogen
(C) Nitrogen and Zinc
(D) Nitrogen and Potassium
Ans : (D)

116. A farming system in which airable crops are grown in alleys formed by trees or shrubs, to establish soil fertility and to enhance soil productivity, is known as—
(A) Relay cropping
(B) Multiple cropping
(C) Alley cropping
(D) Mixed cropping
Ans : (C)

117. The cropping intensity of Groundnut + Arhar – Sugarcane is—
(A) 200%
(B) 300%
(C) 150%
(D) 250%
Ans : (C)

118. The scented variety of paddy is—
(A) Jaya
(B) Bala
(C) Type-3
(D) Type-1
Ans : (C)

119. From which language is the word ‘Agronomy’ taken ?
(A) Latin
(B) Greek
(C) French
(D) German
Ans : (B)

120. Tarameera is belonged to which family ?
(A) Cruciferae
(B) Linaceae
(C) Compositae
(D) Graminae
Ans : (A)

121. The size of clay particles are—
(A) 1•0 mm
(B) 0•2 – 0•02 mm
(C) < 0•02 mm
(D) < 0•002 mm
Ans : (D)

122. When one plant has both male and female flowers separately, is called—
(A) Monophrodits
(B) Monoecious
(C) Hermaphrodite
(D) Apomixis
Ans : (D)

123. Aamrapali is the cross of—
(A) Neelam x Dashaheri
(B) Dashaheri x Langra
(C) Langra x Dashaheri
(D) Dashaheri x Neelam
Ans : (D)

124. Seed-plot technique is adopted in—
(A) Onion 
(B) Potato
(C) Sugarcane 
(D) Tomato
Ans : (B)

125. The origin of litchi is—
(A) India 
(B) Philippines
(C) China 
(D) Burma
Ans : (C)

Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers Exam., 2009

Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers Exam., 2009Professional Knowledge (Agriculture) : Solved Paper

(Held on 4-1-2009)

1. This ‘Biofertilizer’ is a nitrogen fixing micro-organism, beneficial for non-leguminous as well as for vegetable crops—
(A) Rhizobium (RHZ)
(B) Azotobacter (AZT)
(C) Azospirillum (AZS)
(D) Blue Green Algae (BGA)
(E) Phosphate Solubilising (PSB) mobilizing bacteria

2. What percentage of total area under Banana cultivation in India presently, is cultivated by using Tissue-cultured (GMO) plantlets ?
(A) 10 per cent
(B) 15 per cent
(C) 20 per cent
(D) 25 per cent
(E) 30 per cent

3. As per the recent ‘Micro-credit Summit (2007)’, what percentage of total Micro Finance Institutions (MFls) in India serves less than, 10,000 clients (number of clients per MFI) ?
(A) 70 per cent
(B) 75 per cent
(C) 80 per cent
(D) 85 per cent
(E) 90 per cent

4. Fisheries Sector in India contributes what percentage of Agricultural—‘Gross Domestic Product’ (GDP), as on March 2007 ?
(A) 2·5 per cent
(B) 3·5 per cent
(C) 4·5 per cent
(D) 5·5 per cent
(E) 6·5 per cent

5. This agricultural product/horticultural crop requires 2 degree Celsius temperature and 90 per cent humidity for storing in the cold storage—
(A) Mango pulp
(B) Roses
(C) Mushroom
(D) Milk Products
(E) Fish Products

6. The plan outlay for Irrigation Sector to total plan outlay in India was highest (12·5 per cent) in this Five Year Plan (FYP)—
(A) VIth Five Year Plan
(B) VIIth Five Year Plan
(C) VIIIth Five Year Plan
(D) IXth Five Year Plan
(E) Xth Five Year Plan

7. The recommended ratio of use of NPK, the chemical fertilizer by farmers in India is—
(A) 2 : 2 : 2
(B) 3 : 2 : 1
(C) 4 : 2 : 1
(D) 5 : 2 : 1
(E) 6 : 2 : 1

8. This state is a leader in production and export of the Gherkins (Hybrid Cucumber) under the Contract Farming—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
(E) Maharashtra

9. What should be the optimum spacing (in meters) for planting ‘Pusa Nanha’ variety of Papaya under the High Density Planting ?
(A) 1·25 m × 1·25 m
(B) 1·50 m × 1·50 m
(C) 1·75 m × 1·75 m
(D) 2·00 m × 2·00 m
(E) 2·50 m × 2·50 m

10. Dramatic increase in food prices world over had severe consequences for third world countries (FAO, 2008). How many countries in the world are now facing food crisis, because of this phenomenon ?
(A) 35 countries
(B) 36 countries
(C) 37 countries
(D) 38 countries
(E) 39 countries

11. How many outbreaks of ‘Avian Influenza (H5N1)’ were recorded in West Bengal and Tripura during January 2008 and May 2008 ?
(A) 37
(B) 39
(C) 40
(D) 41
(E) 42

12. According to Dr. C. Rangarajan ‘Committee on Financial Inclusion (2007)’, what percentage of Rural Population in India holds Bank Account ?
(A) 18 per cent
(B) 24 per cent
(C) 31 per cent
(D) 35 per cent
(E) 40 per cent

13. Which one of the following Indian States is the largest beneficiary or gainer of the SGSY–credit extended by Banks
during 2006–07 ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) None of these

14. This variety of Tomato is highyielding with good quality fruits and suitable for Jharkhand State for cultivation—
(A) Swarna Lalima
(B) Swarna Shyamali
(C) Swarna Pratibha
(D) Swarna Shree
(E) Swarna Manohar

15. How many plants/trees of Amrapali variety of mango could be profitably accommodated, when planted at 5·0 m × 5·0 m (square method) per hectare ?
(A) 1,400 plants
(B) 1,500 plants
(C) 1,600 plants
(D) 1,700 plants
(E) None of these

16. Which one of the following Brinjal hybrid varieties recently released suitable for U.P. Punjab, Bihar and Jharkhand—
(A) Kashi Sandesh
(B) Swarna Shakti
(C) Kashi Ganesh
(D) HA BH-17
(E) HA BH-3

17. ‘Sweta Seedless’ grape variety recently released by IIHRBangalore, is suitable for growing in—
(A) North India
(B) South India
(C) Western India
(D) Eastern India
(E) All over the country

18. Which one of the following rice/paddy hybrid varieties having superfine grain, aromatic, matured within 120-125 days and recently released for cultivation in Haryana, Delhi and Uttarakhand ?
(A) PA 6201
(B) Pusa RH 10
(C) KRH2
(D) RH 204
(E) Pant Sankar Dhan 3

19. Rabi Sorghum is an important crop suitable for ‘Rainfed Ecosystem’ of this State—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Gujarat
(D) Bihar
(E) Tamilnadu

20. This ‘Agro-Ecosystem’ is characterized by low, erratic rainfall with high coefficient of variation and frequent droughts in India—
(A) Irrigated agro-ecosystem
(B) Arid agro-ecosystem
(C) Coastal agro-ecosystem
(D) Rainfed agro-ecosystem
(E) Hill and Mountain agroecosystem

21. ‘Leaf Rust’ is a serious disease of this crop and till date, there is no effective and ecologically safe fungicide for controlling this disease—
(A) Sweet Potato
(B) Grape
(C) Rice
(D) Wheat
(E) Sorghum

22. What is botanical (Scientific) name of Safed Musli–a medicinal plant grown almost all over India ?
(A) Chlorophytum borivilianum
(B) Curculigo orchioides
(C) Piper longum
(D) Solanum surattense
(E) None of these

23. Central Institute of Post-Harvest Engineering and Technology is located at—
(A) Abohar (Punjab)
(B) Ludhiana (Punjab)
(C) Bangalore (Karnataka)
(D) Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
(E) Hyderabad (Andhra Pradesh)

24. Which one of the following Castor hybrids, you will suggest for getting good yields for rainfed and irrigated areas of Rajasthan State ?
(A) RHC 1 (VP-1 × TMV5-1)
(B) DCH 6 (JP 65 × JI 96)
(C) DCH 519 (M574 × DCS 78)
(D) DCH 177 (DCP 9 × DCS 9)
(E) None of these

25. Which one of the following ‘mixed cropping’ pattern you would suggest to the farmers for getting higher economic benefits ?
(A) Bhindi + Spongegourd
(B) Mango + Turmeric
(C) Mango + Colocasia
(D) Mango + Groundnut
(E) Colocasia + Turmeric

26. Which one of the following States has created ‘Organic Commodities Board’ to promote and restore value of foodcrops, which are mostly grown on marginal lands ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh
(E) Uttarakhand

27. The Central Frozen Semen Production and Training Institute is one of the premier Institute of Animal Husbandry, is located at (HQ)—
(A) Hessarghatta (Karnataka)
(B) Sunabada (Orissa)
(C) Dhamrod (Gujarat)
(D) Suratgarh (Rajasthan)
(E) Andeshnagar (Uttarakhand)

28. What percentage of total cultivable area in India is under ‘Horticultural Crops’ ?
(A) 10 per cent
(B) 11 per cent
(C) 12 per cent
(D) 13 per cent
(E) 14 per cent

29. ‘National Agricultural Insurance Scheme’ (NAIS) was in operation in India since—
(A) Rabi season 1999–2000
(B) Kharif season 1998–1999
(C) Rabi season 2000–2001
(D) Kharif season 2000–2001
(E) None of these

30. ‘Pusa Arunima’ is an improved hybrid variety of this crop relased by IARI, New Delhi—
(A) Mango

(B) Guava
(C) Grape

(D) Citrus
(E) Pomegranate

31. As on 2007, how many Indian States/Union Territories (UTs) have partially modified their respective Acts under the ‘Agricultural Marketing Reforms’ ?
(A) 12 States/UTs
(B) 13 States/UTs
(C) 14 States/UTs
(D) 15 States/UTs
(E) 16 States/UTs

32. What is the total ‘Export Earnings’ (Rs. crore) in 2004-05 from livestock, poultry and related products in India ?
(A) Rs. 2200 crore
(B) Rs. 2250 crore
(C) Rs. 2300 crore
(D) Rs. 2350 crore
(E) Rs. 5150 crore

33. Which one of the following States is leading one (Ranked first) in production of ‘Cut Flowers’ in India ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Karnataka
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) West Bengal

34. To accommodate 277 plants of ‘Acid Lime’ in one hectare area, what should be the spacing between two plants ?
(A) 5·5 m × 5·5 m
(B) 6·0 m × 6·0 m
(C) 6·5 m × 6·5 m
(D) 7·0 m × 7·0 m
(E) None of these

35. Which one of the following ‘Maize Hybrids’, you will suggest to the farmers of Punjab State for growing in ‘Rabi season’ for Higher Yields ?
(A) Vivek Hybrid
(B) Vivek Hybrid 15
(C) Hybrid Sheetal
(D) Deccan 115
(E) Pratap Hybrid Makka 1

36. According to ‘National Sample Survey Organisation’ (NSSO 2006), which one of the following
Information Sources is most availed by the Indian farmers in getting farm information ?
(A) Radio/TV
(B) Fram Input Dealers
(C) Progressive Farmers
(D) Krishi Vigyan Kendras
(E) Agricultural University Specialist

37. More than 40 per cent of the 197 Private Sugar Mills in India are located in this State—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Tamilnadu
(C) Chhattisgarh
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Karnataka

38. What is the subsidy component to the total loan amount/total investment available to SC, ST, woman and other disadvantaged sections candidates under the scheme of ‘Establishing Agriclinic and Agribusiness Centres’ by the Agri/Vet/Horticultural graduates ?
(A) 25 per cent
(B) 33·33 per cent
(C) 50 per cent
(D) 60 per cent
(E) 80 per cent

39. In which one of the following years, the NABARD was established in India—as an Apex Financial Institution for Rural and Agricultural Development ?
(A) 1980

(B) 1981
(C) 1982

(D) 1983
(E) 1984

40. As per the RBI’s directives, Banks should not insist upon the margin/collateral security for the loans to borrowers upto the limits of—
(A) Rs. 50,000
(B) Rs. 75,000
(C) Rs. 1,00,000
(D) Rs. 1,25,000
(E) Rs. 1,50,000

Answers :
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (E) 4. (B) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (E)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (E) 14. (A) 15. (E) 16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (A) 26. (E) 27. (A) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (E) 33. (B) 34. (B) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (A) 38. (A) 39. (C) 40. (B)

National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Exam 2012

Union Public Service Commission
National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Exam 2012
General Knowledge Solved Paper

1. The Jury Act of 1827 was opposed by many Indians. One of the grounds for opposing it was that it denied both to the Hindus and Mohammedans the honour of a seat on the Grand Jury. Which among the following was known for his opposition to the Jury Act? 
(A) Gopal Krishna Gokhale (B) Lord Sinha 
(C) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan (D) Raja Rammohan Roy 
Ans : (D)

2. Plan Balkan was– 
(A) a plan devised by Mountbatten to transfer power to separate provinces or confederation of provinces, with the Bengal and Punjab Assemblies being given the options to vote for partition of their provinces 
(B) The plan devised by Pethick Lawrence to give autonomy to Indian princes and provinces 
(C) A plan devised by the Muslim League and the Congress to provide autonomy to Indian provinces to form confederations 
(D) A plan devised by Mountbatten to allow Indian princes the freedom to either be independent or to join either India or Pakistan 
Ans : (D)

3. Which one among the following prominently rose in revolt against the British in 1857? 
(A) Punjab Army (B) Madras Regiment 
(C) Bengal Army (D) Awadh Regiment 
Ans : (C)

4. The first Prime Minister of India in 1947 was appointed by–
(A) the Governor-General (B) the President of India 
(C) Mahatma Gandhi (D) a committee headed by Dr. Rajendra Prasad 
Ans : (B)

5. Which one among the following statements is correct? 
The press in democracy must– 
(A) be free and impartial 
(B) be committed to the policies of the government 
(C) highlight the achievement of the government without criticising its policies 
(D) criticise the policies of the government 
Ans : (A)

6. Telescopes are placed in space to view distant galaxies primarily to– 
(A) get closer to the observed objects 
(B) avoid the absorption of light or other radiations in the atmosphere of the earth 
(C) avoid light pollution from the earth’s populated areas 
(D) avoid steering the telescope against the earth’s motion 
Ans : (B)

7. SONAR is mostly used by– 
(A) Doctors (B) Engineers 
(C) Astronauts (D) Navigators 
Ans : (D)

8. A bucket full of water is kept in a room and it cools from 75°C to 70°C in time T1 minutes, from 70°C to 65°C in time T2 minutes, and from 65°C to 60°C in time T3 minutes, then– 
(A) T₁ = T₂ = T₃ (B) T₁ < T₂ < T₃ 
(C) T₁ > T₂ > T₃ (D) T₁ < T₃ < T₂
Ans : (B)

9. For a simple pendulum, the graph between T² and L (where T is the time period and L is the length) is– 
(A) straight line passing through origin (B) parabolic 
(C) circle (D) None of the above 
Ans : (A)

10. When an electrical safety fuse is rated (marked) as 16 A, it means it– 
(A) will not work if current is less than 16 A 
(B) has a resistance of 16 Ω 
(C) will work if the temperature is more than 16°C 
(D) will be blown (break) if current exceeds 16 A 
Ans : (D)

11. Who among the following was recently (May 2012) elected as Chair of the Asian Development Bank’s Board of Governors ? 
(A) Pranab Mukherjee (B) Montek Singh Ahluwalia 
(C) Duvvuri Subbarao (D) Aditya Puri 
Ans : (A)

12. Consider the following statements– 
1. Justice Dalveer Bhandari was recently elected as the President of International Court of Justice. 
2. Justice Bhandari was a senior Judge of the Supreme Court of India. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 
Ans : (C)

13. Consider the following names in the field of Indian cinema– 
Vidya Balan, Sournitra Chatterjee, Tapan Sinha, VK Murthy 
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 
1. All of them are winners of Dadasaheb Phalke Award. 
2. While Tapan Sinha is a film director, VK Murthy is known for cinematography. 
3. Soumitra Chatterjee was the last to get the Dadasaheb Phalke Award. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 3 only (D) 1 and 2 only 
Ans : (B)

14. Who among the following was awarded the first Tagore Award for Cultural Harmony for the year 2012? 
(A) Jasraj (B) Ravi Shankar 
(C) Nikhil Banerjee (D) Bhimsen Joshi 
Ans : (B)

15. Consider the following about the budget proposals for the year 2012-2013– 
1. Service tax rate raised and covers all services including those in the negative list. 
2. Increase in defence allocation over the previous year. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 
Ans : (B)

16. Suppose, the Naxalites have kidnapped a Deputy Commissioner from Baster region in Chhattisgarh and taken him to the Abujmad area. In return for his release, the Naxals demand that all Naxal prisoners must be released from jails across India. In such a situation which among the following may be the best conflict resolution mechanism? 
1. The paramilitary and local police attack the Naxalites and attempt to release the kidnapped. 
2. The state forces offer huge sums of money to the Naxals as ransom and release all Naxal prisoners. 
3. The state forces engaged the Naxals in a dialogue while simul- taneously sending in a commando force to release the prisoners. 
4. The state forces utilise local mediators to engage with the Naxals to work out a resolution process for release of the kidnapped. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(A) 1, 3 and 4 (B) 2 and 3 
(C) 3 and 4 only (D) 4 only 
Ans : (C)

17. A high level committee set up by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation conducted a survey of the slum populations in India’s states. Which one among the following states was identified as being the one with highest slum population ? 
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Madhya Pradesh 
(C) Maharashtra (D) Tamil Nadu 
Ans : (C)

18. The UN has recently passed a resolution against human right violation in a South Asian country. Which of the following was the country? 
(A) Nepal (B) India 
(C) Pakistan (D) Sri Lanka 
Ans : (D)

19. Prof. Vijay Raghavan, an Indian scientist, who has been elected Fellow of Royal Society in the year 2012, is a renowned– 
(A) Biotechnologist (B) Chemist 
(C) Agricultural scientist (D) Missile engineer 
Ans : (A)

20. ‘Operation Cactus’ is the name given to Indian Military intervention in– 
(A) Maldives (B) Sri Lanka 
(C) Bangladesh (D) Bhutan 
Ans : (A)

21. Air is– 
(A) always a compound (B) always a mixture 
(C) a compound in pollution free zones 
(D) a mixture in industrial zones 
Ans : (B)

22. Consider the following figure– 

Which of the following labelled points in the figure given above indicate unstable state of an object ? 
(A) Point A only (B) Point B only 
(C) Points A and C (D) Points B and D 
Ans : (C)

23. Which one among the following is an electrochemical cell that cannot be charged? 
(A) Electrolytic cell (B) Storage cell 
(C) Primary cell (D) Fuel cell 
Ans : (C)

24. Which one among the following is the correct order of power consumption for light of equal intensity ? 
(A) CFL tube < Fluorescent tube < Incandescent bulb < Light emitting diode 
(B) Light emitting diode < CFL tube < Fluorescent tube < Incandescent bulb 
(C) CFL tube < Fluorescent tube < Light emitting diode < Incandescent bulb 
(D) Incandescent bulb < Light emitting diode < Fluorescent tube < CFL tube 
Ans : (B)

25. One feels heavier in a lift when the lift– 
(A) is going down steadily (B) just begins to go up 
(C) is moving up steadily (D) descends freely 
Ans : (B)

26. A swinging pendulum has its maximum acceleration at– 
(A) the bottom of the swing (B) the two extremities of the swing 
(C) every point on the swing (D) no particular portion of the pendulum 
Ans : (B)

27. Which one among the following statements about thermal conductivity is correct? 
(A) Steel > Wood > Water (B) Steel > Water > Wood 
(C) Water > Steel > Wood (D) Water > Wood > Steel 
Ans : (B)

28. The process of nuclear fusion in the sun requires– 
(A) very high temperature and very high pressure (B) low temperature and high pressure 
(C) high temperature and low pressure (D) very high temperature and no pressure
Ans : (A)

29. Which one among the following is the true representation of (i) variable DC potential, (ii) rheostat and (iii) AC ammeter respectively ? 

Ans : (C)

30. In India, distribution of electricity for domestic purpose is done in the form of– 
(A) 220 V; 50 Hz (B) 110 V; 60 Hz 
(C) 220 V; 60 Hz (D) 110 V; 50 Hz 
Ans : (A)

31. The earth’s magnetic field is approximately– 
(A) 1 Tesla (B) 2 Gauss 
(C) 104 Tesla (D) 1 Gauss 
Ans : (D)

32. Yellow colour light is used as fog light because yellow colour– 
(A) light is most scattered by fog 
(B) has the longest wavelength among all colours 
(C) has the longest wavelength among all colours except red and orange but the red colour is already used for brake light and stop light whereas orange colour is avoided due to its similarity with red 
(D) has the shortest wavelength among all colours not already reserved for other purpose 
Ans : (C)

33. A hot object loses heat to its surroundings in the form of heatradiation. The rate of loss of heat depends on the– 
(A) temperature of the object (B) temperature of the surroundings 
(C) temperature difference between the object and its surroundings 
(D) average temperature of the object and its surroundings 
Ans : (D)

34. The mirror used for the headlight of a car is– 
(A) spherical concave (B) plane 
(C) cylindrical (D) parabolic concave 
Ans : (D)

35. An iron ball and a wooden ball of the same radius are released from a height ‘H’ in vacuum. The time taken to reach the ground will be– 
(A) more for the iron ball (B) more for the wooden ball 
(C) equal for both (D) in the ratio of their weights 
Ans : (C)

Directions (Qs. 36 and 37) : These items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below– 
Code: 
(A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I 
(B) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I 
(C) Statement I is true but statement II is false 
(D) Statement I is false but statement II is true 

36. Statement I : 
Red brood cells burst when placed in water. 
Statement II : 
Due to the phenomenon of osmosis water enters into red blood cells. 
Ans : (A)

37. Statement I : 
Indigo formed the basis of a flourishing sector of commercial agriculture by the beginning of the 19th century. 
Statement II : 
The Indigo Commission was set up to enquire into the grievances of the indigo cultivators in 1860. 
Ans : (B)

38. Which one among the following waterborne diseases is not caused by a bacteria? 
(A) Cholera (B) Typhoid 
(C) Bacillary dysentery (D) Hepatitis A 
Ans : (D)

39. The process of conventional earlobe piercing does not lead to bleeding. This is because the– 
(A) heart does not supply blood to earlobes 
(B) cartilage found in earlobe has lesser blood supply unlike other body parts 
(C) earlobes consist of dead non dividing tissue 
(D) needle used for ear piercing is sterilised 
Ans : (B)

40. After entering the human body through mosquito bite, the malarial parasite (plasmodium) shows initial multiplication in– 
(A) Spinal chord (B) Blood 
(C) Liver (D) Spleen 
Ans : (C)

41. Which one among the following parts of blood carries out the function of body defence ? 
(A) Platelets (B) White Blood Cells 
(C) Haemoglobin (D) Red Blood Cells 
Ans : (B)

42. Which one among the following is not included in the major clinical sign as a case definition of AIDS in children andlt; 12 years of age? 
(A) Persistent cough for more than 1 month (B) Loss of weight 
(C) Chronic diarrhoea (D) Prolonged fever 
Ans : (A)

43. Polio disease is caused by– 
(A) Bacteria (B) Fungi 
(C) Virus (D) Worm 
Ans : (C)

44. Which one among the following is the hardest part of our body? 
(A) Skull bones of head (B) Thumb nails 
(C) Enamel of teeth (D) Spinal vertebra 
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following group is present in animal cells? 
(A) Mitochondria, Cell membrane, Cell wall, Cytoplasm 
(B) Chloroplasts, Cytoplasm, Vacuole, Nucleus 
(C) Nucleus, Cell membrane, Mitochondria, Cytoplasm 
(D) Vacuole, Cell membrane, Nucleus, Mitochondria 
Ans : (C)

46. Which one among the following statements is correct? 
In digestive system of living organisms– 
(A) glucose is broken down into glycerol 
(B) glucose is converted into glycogen 
(C) glucose is broken down into carbon dioxide and water 
(D) proteins are broken down into amino acids 
Ans : (D)

47. Which one among the following rocks does not belong to the same group? 
(A) Shale (B) Limestone 
(C) Slate (D) Sandstone 
Ans : (C)

48. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List I (World Heritage Site) 
A. Brihadisvara Temple B. Ellora Caves C. Hampi D. Mahabodhi Temple
List II (State) 
1. Maharashtra 2. Karnataka 3. Tamil Nadu 4. Bihar
Code: 
A B C D
(A) 4 1 2 3
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 3 1 2 4
Ans : (D)

49. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List I (Himalayan Peak) 
A. K2 B. Nanda Devi C. Tara Pahar D. Kanchenjunga
List II (State) 
1. Uttarakhand 2. Jammu and Kashmir 3. Sikkim 3. Himachal Pradesh
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 2 4 1 3 
(B) 2 1 4 3 
(C) 3 1 4 2 
(D) 3 4 1 2 
Ans : (B)

50. The Deccan Trap Formation was caused by– 
(A) Shield eruption (B) Composite eruption 
(C) Caldera eruption (D) Flood basalt eruption 
Ans : (D)

51. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List I (Magnet) 
A. Artificial magnet B. Permanent magnet 
C. Temporary magnet D. Earth as a magnet 
List II (Property) 
1. Long lived 2. Lasts for infinitely long period 
3. Short lived 4. Induced magnet 
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 3 1 4 2 
(B) 3 4 1 2 
(C) 2 1 4 3 
(D) 2 4 1 3 
Ans : (A)

52. A body weighs 5 kg on equator. At the poles it is likely to weigh– 
(A) 5 kg (B) less than 5 kg but not zero 
(C) 0 kg (D) more than 5 kg 
Ans : (D)

53. The polarity of an unmarked horse shoe magnet can be determined by using– 
(A) a charged glass rod (B) a magnetic compass 
(C) an electroscope (D) another unmarked bar magnet 
Ans : (B)

54. A staircase has 5 steps each 10 cm high and 10 cm wide. What is the minimum horizontal velocity to be given to the ball so that it hits directly the lowest plane from the top of the staircase? (g = 10 ms2) 
(A) 2 ms^-1 (B) 1 ms^-1
(C) √2 ms^-1 (D) ½ ms^-1 
Ans : (B)

55. Consider the following statements– 
1. If a piece of bar magnet is broken into two equally long pieces, the pieces will not lose the magnetic properties. 
2. Magnetic properties of a substance lie in the atomic level. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 
Ans : (C)

56. Consider the following circuit– 

The current flowing through each of the resistors connected in the above circuit is– 
(A) 2A (B) 1A 
(C) 9A (D) 4A 
Ans : (A)

57. Consider the following statements–
The state government shall appoint a Finance Commission to review the financial position of the Panchayats and to make recommendations as to– 
1. the distribution between the state and Panchayats of the net proceeds of taxes, tolls and fees leviable by the states. 
2. the determination of the taxes, duties, tolls and fees which may be assigned to the Panchayats. 
3. the principles that will determine grant-in-aid to the Panchayats. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 
Ans : (D)

58. Which one among the following monuments was earlier known as ‘All India War Memorial’ ? 
(A) Gateway of India (B) India Gate 
(C) Charminar (D) Lal Quila 
Ans : (B)

59. Which of the following statements regarding the Preamble of the Constitution of India is/are correct? 
1. The Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution. 
2. The words ‘secular’ and ‘socialist’ have been a part of the Preamble since its inception. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 
Ans : (A)

60. Normally the Parliament can legislate on the subjects enumerated in– 
(A) the Union List (B) the Concurrent List 
(C) the State List (D) the Union as well as the Concurrent List 
Ans : (D)

61. Which one among the following statements relating to the Home Rule movement is not correct ? 
(A) The movement, instead of going forward after its great advance in 1917, gradually declined in 1918 
(B) Annie Besant, ‘the leader of the movement did not oppose the entry of extremists 
(C) The movement became weaker and weaker because of the continuous differences of opinion among the nationalist leaders 
(D) The movement was again revived by Mahatma Gandhi 
Ans : (D)

62. Why did Gandhiji go to Champaran ? 
(A) To launch a Saryagraha movement (B) To launch a non-cooperation movement 
(C) To enquire into the grievances of the indigo cultivators (D) To fight against the zamindars 
Ans : (C)

63. Which one among the following was the fundamental cause of the first Karnataka War between the British and the French ? 
(A) Participation of the English and the French in the native politics of Karnataka 
(B) The ambition of Dupleix to drive out the English from the South 
(C) The trade rivalry between the English and the French 
(D) The war of Austrian succession because of which Britain and France became each other’s enemy in every part of the world 
Ans : (D)

64. Which one among the following cities was the best producer of silk cloth under Gupta reign? 
(A) Pataliputra (B) Murshidabad 
(C) Ghazipur (D) Varanasi 
Ans : (B)

65. Which one among the following is not correct about the cave paintings at Ajanta ? 
(A) Scenes have no dividing frame and blend into each other 
(B) Scenes are both religious and secular in nature 
(C) The influence of the Gandhara art is seen 
(D) Scenes mostly depict tales from Jatakas 
Ans : (C)

66. Vice-President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of– 
(A) members of both Houses of Parliament 
(B) members of Rajya Sabha only 
(C) elected members of both Houses of Parliament 
(D) elected members of Lok Sabha only
Ans : (A)

67. Who among the following has a right to speak and otherwise take part in proceedings of either House of Parliament and to be a member of any parliamentary committee but is not entitled to vote? 
(A) Chairman, Finance Commission (B) The Attorney. General 
(C) The Comptroller and Auditor-General (D) The Chief Election Commissioner 
Ans : (B)

68. Which one among the following countries is not touched by the Stilwell Road constructed during the World War II ? 
(A) Myanmar (B) Thailand 
(C) China (D) India 
Ans : (B)

69. Which one among the following wars ended by the Treaty of Salbai ? 
(A) First Maratha War (B) Second Maratha War 
(C) Third Maratha War (D) Fourth Mysore War 
Ans : (A)

70. Navroze is a festival celebrated in India by the– 
(A) Hindus (B) Muslims 
(C) Parsis (D) Chris tians 
Ans : (C)

71. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List I (River) 
A. Volga B. Dnieper C. Rhine D. Don
List II (Sea) 
1. Sea of Azov 2. Black Sea 3. Caspian Sea 4. Mediterranean Sea
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 1 4 2 3 
(B) 1 2 4 3 
(C) 3 2 4 1 
(D) 3 4 2 1 
Ans : (C)

72. Which one among the following transitions is associated with the largest change in energy in hydrogen atom ? 
(A) n = 5 to n = 3 (B) n = 2 to n = 1 
(C) n = 3 to n = 2 (D) n = 4 to n = 2 
Ans : (B)

73. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List I (Compound) 
A. Cellulose nitrate B. Potassium sulphate C. Potassium salt of fatty acids D. Calcium oxide
List II (Use) 
1. Soft soap 2. Gun powder 3. Fertiliser 4. Glass
Code: 
A B C D
(A) 2 3 1 4 
(B) 2 1 3 4 
(C) 4 1 3 2 
(D) 4 3 1 4 
Ans : (A)

74. Which one among the following does not have an allotrope ? 
(A) Oxygen (B) Sulphur 
(C) Nitrogen(D) Carbon 
Ans : (C)

75. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List I (Scientist) 
A. Goldstein B. Chadwick C. J J Thomson D. John palton
List II (Discovery) 
1. Atomic theory 2. Proton 3. Neutron 4. Electron
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 2 3 4 1 
(B) 2 4 3 1 
(C) 1 4 3 2 
(D) 1 3 4 2 
Ans : (A)

76. Consider the following statements– 
1. Diamond is hard and graphite is soft. 
2. Diamond is soft and graphite is hard. 
3. Diamond is a bad conductor but graphite is a good conductor. 
4. Diamond is a good conductor but graphite is a bad conductor. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 only 
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 4 
Ans : (A)

77. The most important raw materials used in the manufacture of cement are– 
(A) Potassium nitrate, charcoal and sulphur 
(B) Limestone, clay and gypsum 
(C) Transition metal oxides, sodium hydroxide or potassium hydroxide 
(D) Limestone, sodium carbonate and silica 
Ans : (B)

78. Which one among the following equations is correctly balanced ? 
(A) NaOH + Al + H₂O→ 2H₂ + NaAlO₂ 
(B) 2NaOH + 2Al + 2 H₂O→ 3H₂ + 2NaAlO₂ 
(C) 2NaOH + 2Al + 3 H₂O→ 4H₂ + 2NaAlO₂ 
(D) 2NaOH + 2Al + H₂O→ H₂ + 2NaAlO₂ 
Ans : (B)

79. Three elements Na, S and O combine to form a compound Na₂SO₃. What is the valency of S in this compound? 
(A) 2+ (B) 4+ 
(C) 6+ (D) 8+ 
Ans : (B)

80. Which one among the following is the equivalent weight of sulphuric acid? 
(Atomic weight: H = 1, S = 32, O=16) 
(A) 98 (B) 60 
(C) 100 (D) 49 
Ans : (D)

81. Deionised water is produced by– 
(A) Calgon process (B) Ion-exchange resin process 
(C) Clark’s process (D) Permutit process 
Ans : (C)

82. Which one among the following is a double salt ? 
(A) K⁴[Fe(CN)₆] (B) K₂SO₄•Al₂ (SO₄)₃•24H₂O 
(C) CuSO₄•5H₂O (D) NaCl 
Ans : (B)

83. Which one among the following is the correct order of strength of acids? 
(A) H₂SO₄> H₃PO3 > CH₃COOH 
(B) H₃PO₃ > H₂SO₄> CH₃COOH 
(C) CH₃COOH > H₃PO₃ > H₂SO₄ 
(D) CH₃COOH > H₂SO₄> H₃PO₃ 
Ans : (A)

84. Given below is an approximate composition of a substance– 
CaO 60-70% 
SiO₂ 20-25% 
Al₂O₃ 5-10% 
Fe₂O₃ 2-3% 
The substance is 
(A) Plaster of Paris (B) Cement 
(C) Marble Stone (D) Quartz 
Ans : (B)

85. In KMnO4 molecule, the oxidation states of the elements Potassium (K), Manganese (Mn) and Oxygen (O) are respectively– 
(A) + 1, + 5, – 2 (B) + 1, + 7, – 2 
(C) 0, 0, 0 (D) + 1, + 7, 0 
Ans : (B)

86. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 
1. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone is a low pressure belt which forms an important zone of contact over Northern India and Pakistan. 
2. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone invites inflow of winds from different directions. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 
Ans : (B)

87. Consider the following characteristics of industries– 
1. They can be located in a wide variety of places. 
2. They are not dependent on any specific raw material. 
3. They are generally not polluting industries. 
4. The most important factor in their location is accessibility. 
Which one of the following types of industries has the above characteristics? 
(A) Market oriented (B) Foot loose 
(C) Sunset (D) Sunrise 
Ans : (B)

88. Consider the following statements regarding EI Nino effect on Indian Monsoon– 
1. The surface temperature goes up in the Southern Pacific Ocean and there is deficient rainfall in India. 
2. The Walker Circulation shifts eastward from its normal position and reduces monsoon rainfall in India. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 rand 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (C)

89. In which among the following terrains the bore wells and canals can be dug easily ? 
(A) Gneiss, granites and basaltic terrain of Peninsular India 
(B) Rolling and dotted hilly terrain of North-East India 
(C) Soft alluvium of the Northern Plains 
(D) Confined aquifer below the normal water table 
Ans : (C)

90. Wide range and variability in rainfall, torrential in character, reversal of winds and uncertain arrival are the characteristics of– 
(A) Westerlies (B) Trade winds 
(C) Monsoon (D) Anti trade winds 
Ans : (C)

91. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 
1. The local time of Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh) is about two hours ahead than Dwarka (Gujarat). 
2. The local time at Chennai (Tamil Nadu) and Lucknow (Uttar Pradesh) is almost same. 
3. The local time of Mumbai (Maharashtra) is one hour ahead than Kolkata (West Bengal). 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 
Ans : (A)

92. Mackeral sky is associated with cloud type– 
(A) Cumulo-nimbus (B) Strata-cumulus 
(C) Alto-cumulus (D) Cirro-cumulus 
Ans : (c/d)

93. The average surface temperature of the earth’s surface is– 
(A) 10°C (B) 15°C 
(C) 8°C (D) 5°C 
Ans : (B)

94. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List I (Atomic poser station) 
A. Narora B. Rana Pratap Sagar C. Tarapur D. Kalpakkam
List II (Position in map) 
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 2 4 3 1 
(B) 1 3 4 2 
(C) 2 3 4 1 
(D) 1 4 3 2 
Ans : (C)

95. Ferral’s law is related to deflection of– 
(A) cold air-mass (B) hot air-mass 
(C) monsoon air-mass (D) trade wind and ocean currents 
Ans : (D)

96. The grassland region of South Africa is known as– 
(A) Selvas (B) Downs 
(C) Veldt (D) Llanos
Ans : (C)

97. In India, the Tropical Savanah (AW) type of climate prevails largely in– 
(A) Rajasthan desert region (B) Peninsular plateau region 
(C) Jammu and Kashmir region (D) North-Eastern region 
Ans : (B)

98. The Nokrek biosphere reserve is located in– 
(A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Assam 
(C) Sikkim (D) Meghalaya 
Ans : (D)

99. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List I (Place) 
A. Jabalpur B. Bengaluru C. Modinagar D. Ballarpur
List II (Industry) 
1. Petro-chemical 2. Information Technology 3. Paper 4. Automobile
Code: 
A B C D 
(A) 4 1 2 3 
(B) 3 1 2 4 
(C) 3 2 1 4 
(D) 4 2 1 3 
Ans : (D)

100. Where is Aghil Pass located?
(A) Nepal Himalayas (B) Sikkim Himalayas 
(C) Eastern Himalayas (D) Trans Himalayas
Ans : (D)

by 

s.g.goswami