Thursday, April 23, 2015


computer Questions
Q-1. Information that comes from an external source and fed into computer software is called -
1. Output
2. Input
3. Throughut
4. Reports
Q-2. Which of the following can input graphical images and pictures for a computer?
1. Plotter
2. Scanner
3. Mouse
4. Printer
Q-3. Using output devices one can -
1. input data
2. store data
3. scan data
4. view or print data
Q-4. Which of the following categories would include a keyboard?
1. Printing Device
2. Output Device
3. Storage Device
4. Input Device
Q-5. Print Preview command is used when you want to -
1. colour the document.
2. save the document.
3. copy the document.
4. view how the document will appear when printed.
Q-6. The time for the actual data transfer after receiving the request for data from secondary storage is referred to as the disk's -
1. transfer time.
2. movement time.
3. access time.
4. data input time.
Q-7. Why is the Caps Lock key referred to as a toggle key?
1. Because its function goes back and forth every time it is pressed
2. Because it cannot be used for entering numbers
3. Because it cannot be used to delete
4. Because it cannot be used to insert
Q-8. Your position in the text is shown by a -
1. Blinker
2. Cursor
3. Causer
4. Pointer
Q-9. To reverse the effect of your fast action in Word -
1. use the cut command.
2. use the Undo command.
3. press the Deleted key.
4. use the Redo command.
Q. Which of the following is not an example of hardware?
1. Scanner
2. Printer
3. Monitor
4. Interpreter
1-2 2-2 3-4 5-4 6-3 7-1 8-1 9-2 10-4

Tuesday, April 21, 2015

Global Index

What Is The Global Slavery Index?
The Global Slavery Index 2013 measures the size of the modern slavery problem, country by country. The Index provides a quantitative ranking of 162 countries around the world according to the estimated prevalence of modern slavery (that is, the estimated percentage of enslaved people in the national population at a point in time). The Index is constructed from three quantitative indicators on prevalence, one of which was generated internally (estimated prevalence of slavery), and two of which are based on an analysis of pre-existing data from UNICEF and the US Trafficking in Persons report.
The second section, on the risk of modern slavery, analyses risk based on an assessment of 31 qualitative and quantitative indicators that reflect five key dimensions: a country's anti-slavery policies; a country's respect for human rights; a country’s level of human and economic development; the stability of the government and the institutions of the country; and the level of discrimination against women in a country. All of these indicators are generated externally by respected sources and were selected by the research team on the basis of statistical testing for their relationship to the prevalence of slavery.
The third section, on government responses to slavery analyses the strength of government responses, and includes country studies for 20 countries. These studies describe the problem, government responses, and action needed. Additional country studies are on the website. Future editions of the report will examine responses of all countries listed in the Index.


Wednesday, January 22, 2014


1. Control function of management implies—
(A) To bring harmony in various activities (B) To keep the workforce satisfied
(C) To take corrective 
course of action (D) To dictate the subordinates

2. Coordination function of management aims at—
(A) Providing sufficient personnel (B) Bringing harmony in various activities
(C) Taking up corrective course of action (D) All the above

3. “Authority flows downwards from top to the bottom whereas accountability flows upwards from bottom to top.” It is found in—
(A) Scalar chain (B) Functional organisation
(C) Committee structure (D) Multivariate Approach

4. Maslow’s needs hierarchy theory relates to—
(A) Motivation (B) Leadership
(C) Communication (D) Directing

5. M.B.O. is a technique of—
(A) Planning only (B) Controlling only
(C) Neither planning nor controlling (D) Both planning and controlling

6. Henry Fayol is known for—
(A) Scientific Management (B) Rationalisation
(C) Industrial Psychology (D) Principles of Management

Unity of command implies having not more than one—
(A) Subordinate (B) Friend
(C) Boss (D) Unit

8. ‘x’ and ‘y’ theory of Motivation has been propounded by—
(A) McGregor (B) Maslow
(C) Ouchi (D) Herzberg

9. Coordination has the following features—
(A) Continuous (B) Vertical organisation
(C) Horizontal relationship (D) All of the above

10. Which one of the following is not a barrier in communication ?
(A) Noise (B) Affection
(C) Fear and distrust (D) Perception

11. Who can be appointed as a Company Secretary under the Companies Act, 1956 ?
(A) An individual (B) A partnership firm
(C) A company (D) None of the above

12. Appointment of a Company Secretary is made by—
(A) Promoters (B) Board of Directors
(C) Debenture holders (D) Government

13. Convening meetings of a company is the responsibility of the—
(A) Chairman, Board of Directors (B) Managing Director
(C) Company Secretary (D) General Manager

14. What is the quorum of general meetings in the case of private 
limited company and public limited company ?
(A) 2 members and 5 members respectively (B) 3 members and 5 members respectively
(C) 5 members in each type of company (D) 5 members and 7 members respectively

15. Minutes of the annual general meeting must be prepared and signed by the chairman within—
(A) 14 days of the meeting (B) 21 days of the meeting
(C) 30 days of the meeting (D) 45 days of the meeting

16. Liability of a Company Secretary is—
(A) Contractual only (B) Statutory only
(C) Civil only (D) Both contractual and statutory

17. The primary function of an office is—
(A) Making, using and preserving records (B) Remunerating personnel
(C) Carrying out 
management policies (D) Safeguarding organization’s assets

18. In an office, 
Franking machine is used for—
(A) Punching card (B) Accounting work
(C) Duplicating (D) 
Postal stamp fixing

19. Fax is used for—
(A) Sending telephonic message (B) Sending copies of documents
(C) Exercising control (D) Decision making

20. Keyboard of a computer is—
(A) An input device (B) An output device
(C) A processing device (D) A storage device

21. Paperless office calls for—
(A) Minimum record keeping (B) Maximum use of telephone
(C) Maximum use of computers (D) Elimination of reporting

22. Delegation of authority signifies the delegation of—
(A) Authority (B) Responsibility
(C) Both of the above (D) None of the above

23. Management by exception implies focussing attention on—
(A) All variations (B) Normal variations
(C) Abnormal variations (D) Randomly selected variations

24. The most recent form of retail distribution is—
(A) Mail order business (B) Chain stores
(C) Departmental stores (D) Sky shopping

25. Decentralisation—
(A) Increases the importance of supervisors (B) Decreases the importance of supervisors
(C) Increases the importance of subordinates (D) Decreases the importance of subordinates

26. Match the following—
(a) Principle of subrogation (b) Principle of ultra vires
(c) Holding company (d) SEBI
1. Business combination 2. Insurance
3. Company Law 4. Stock Exchange
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 1 2 3 4

27. Reserve Bank of India is a—
(A) Government Company (B) Departmental Organisation
(C) Statutory Corporation (D) None of the above

28. Application of Theory ‘X’ implies practising of—
(A) Free leadership (B) Democratic leadership
(C) Autocratic leadership (D) None of the above

29. Which of the following is the Accounting equation ?
(A) Capital = Assets – Liabilities
(B) Capital = Assets + Liabilities
(C) Assets = Liabilities – Capital
(D) Liabilities = Assets – Capital

30. Expenditure on installation of a plant should be debited to—
(A) Installation Expenses account (B) Sundry expenses account
(C) Plant account (D) Maintenance of Assets A/c

31. Closing stock appearing in the Trial Balance is shown in—
(A) Balance Sheet only (B) Trading Account only
(C) Trading Account and Balance Sheet both (D) None of the above

32. The rate of gross profit is 20% on sales and the cost of goods sold is Rs. 1‚00‚000, the amount of gross profit will be—
(A) Rs. 30‚000 (B) Rs. 25‚000
(C) Rs. 20‚000 (D) Rs. 16‚667

33. The policy “anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses” arises due to—
(A) Convention of consistency (B) Convention of conservatism
(C) Convention of Disclosure (D) None of the above

34. Donations received for the special purpose will be taken to the—
(A) Income and Expenditure Account (B) Assets side of the Balance Sheet
(C) Liabilities side of the Balance Sheet (D) Receipts and Payments Account

35. A sports club receives admission fees. It is a—
(A) Revenue receipt (B) Capital receipt
(C) Deferred receipt (D) None of these

36. Stock should include—
(A) Goods held as security (B) Goods held as consignee
(C) Goods with customers for approval on sale or return basis (D) Goods sold but not delivered

37. Receipts and Payments Account is an abbreviated form of—
(A) Cash Book (B) Pass Book
(C) Both Cash Book and Pass Book (D) None of the above

38. At what price the stock is valued under conventional method ?
(A) At cost price (B) At market price
(C) At cost price or market price whichever is lower (D) At cost price or market price whichever is higher

39. Which of the following is a personal account ?
(A) Outstanding Expense (B) Investment
(C) Share premium (D) Salary

40. On the admission of a partner, fictitious assets are—
(A) Transferred to Revaluation Account (B) Transferred to Capital Account
(C) Transferred to Reserves (D) Shown in the new Balance Sheet

41. The profit ratio of A, B and C, who are partners in a firm, is 4 : 3 : 2. After D is admitted, their sacrificing ratio will be—
(A) 4 : 3 : 2 (B) 1 : 3 : 2
(C) Equal (D) 5 : 3 : 2

42. X and Y are sharing profits in the ratio of 4 : 3. Z joins and new profit sharing ratio of X, Y and Z is 7 : 4 : 3. The sacrificing ratio of X and Y will be—
(A) Equal (B) 4 : 3
(C) 2 : 1 (D) 1 : 2

43. A and B were partners in a business and were sharing profit and loss in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admitted C as a partner for 15th share. The new profit sharing ratio shall be—
(A) 3 : 2 : 1  (B) 6 : 4 : 1
(C) 12 : 8 : 5 (D) 12 : 6 : 2

44. At the time of admission of a new partner, general reserve is transferred to—
(A) Old partner’s Capital Account (B) Profit and Loss Adjustment Account
(C) Balance Sheet (D) None of these

45. A, B and C are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. D is admitted in the first as a partner for 1/5th share. The sacrificing ratio of A, B and C will be—
(A) 3 : 2 : 5 (B) 5 : 3 : 2
(C) 5 : 2 : 3 (D) 2 : 3 : 5

46. Advance Income-tax is shown in the—
(A) Debit side of Profit and Loss Account (B) Liability side of the Balance Sheet
(C) Credit side of Profit and Loss Account (D) Assets side of the Balance Sheet

47. A and B were sharing profits of a business in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit C into partnership, who gets 1/3 of A’s share of profit from A, 1/2 of B’s share of profit from B.
The new profit sharing ratio will be—
(A) 3 : 2 : 5 (B) 2 : 1 : 2
(C) 3 : 2 : 1 (D) 3 : 2 : 2

48. In the absence of a Partnership Deed, the rate of interest allowed on the partner’s loan to the firm is—
(A) 5% (B) 6%
(C) 10% (D) None of the above

49. Interim Dividend is shown—
(A) In Profit and Loss Account (B) In Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
(C) On Asset side of Balance Sheet (D) On Liabilities side of Balance Sheet

50. Redeemable Preference shares of Rs. 1‚00‚000 are redeemed at a premium of 5%. With this object equity shares of Rs. 40‚000 are issued at par. What amount should be transferred to Capital Redemption Reserve Account ?
(A) Nil (B) Rs. 1‚05‚000
(C) Rs. 65‚000 (D) Rs. 60‚000

51. X Limited forfeited Ram’s 20 shares of Rs. 10 each on which Rs. 7 is called up. Ram had paid application and allotment money of Rs. 5 per share. Of these forfeited shares 15 shares were reissued to Hari as fully paid up for Rs. 6 per share. What amount should be transferred to Capital Reserve account ?
(A) Rs. 15 (B) Rs. 20
(C) Rs. 75 (D) Rs. 100

52. In case of a company, “Buy Back” is related to—
(A) Prospectus (B) Shares
(C) Debentures (D) Cheques

53. The profit of a company (whose capital is divided into 25‚000 shares of Rs. 10 each) for the last three years are : Rs. 50‚000; Rs. 60‚000 and Rs. 40‚000. The fair return on investment is taken at 10% p.a. The value of company’s share will be—
(A) Rs. 10 (B) Rs. 20
(C) Rs. 30 (D) Rs. 40

54. The amount deposited in Securities Premium Account can be used for—
(A) Distributing profits (B) Issue of Bonus Shares
(C) Paying the amount to director (D) None of the above

55. Profit prior to incorporation is transferred to—
(A) Capital reserve (B) General reserve
(C) Profit and Loss Account (D) Trading Account

56. If super profit is Rs. 4‚000 and normal rate of return is 8 per cent, the amount of goodwill will be—
(A) Rs. 40‚000 (B) Rs. 50‚000
(C) Rs. 4‚00‚000 (D) Rs. 5‚000

57. Goodwill, Copyright and Trademarks should be classified as—
(A) Tangible assets (B) Intangible assets
(C) Current assets (D) Fictitious assets

58. The portion of share capital which can be called up only on the winding up of a company is known as—
(A) Called up capital (B) Paid up capital
(C) Authorised capital (D) Reserve capital

59. Which one of the following is called backbone of auditing ?
(A) Routine checking (B) Vouching
(C) Internal check (D) Internal control

60. Internal Audit is provided for in the—
(A) Companies Act (B) Partnership Act
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) or (B)

61. A vacancy caused by the resignation of the auditor is filled only by the—
(A) Board of Directors of the Company (B) Central Government
(C) General Meeting of the shareholders (D) Managing Director of the company

62. The first auditor of a company appointed, holds office—
(A) For a period of one year
(B) For that period till new auditor is appointed
(C) Till the conclusion of first Annual General Meeting
(D) Till the holding of statutory meeting of the company

63. Internal Auditor is appointed by the—
(A) Management (B) Shareholders
(C) Government (D) Statutory Auditor

64. “Auditor is a watchdog and not a blood hound” was a remark made in the case of—
(A) The London Oil Storage Co. Ltd. 1904 (B) Kingston Cotton Mills Ltd. 1896
(C) London and General Bank 1895 (D) Delightful Cigarette Co. Ltd. 1943

65. The auditor is generally expected to carryout the following in a particular sequence—
1. Verification of Assets and Liabilities.
2. Vouching of transactions.
3. Checking of valuation of Assets and Liabilities.
Select the correct sequence of the above from the following—
(A) 1, 3 and 2
(B) 3, 2 and 1
(C) 2, 1 and 3
(D) 3, 1 and 2

66. Auditing of accounts is compulsory for—
(A) Sole proprietory business (B) Partnership firms
(C) Joint Stock Companies (D) None of the above

67. Under vouching, checking is done of—
(A) Journal and Ledger (B) Profit and Loss Account
(C) Balance Sheet (D) All of the above

68. The goods taken by the proprietor from the shop is debited to—
(A) Shop account (B) Goods account
(C) Capital account (D) Drawings accounts

69. Which of the following types of business organisation has a separate legal entity ?
(A) Joint Hindu family business (B) Partnership
(C) Joint Stock Company (D) None of the above

70. The organisation in which power of authority runs in straight line is called—
(A) Line organisation (B) Functional organisation
(C) Committee organisation (D) None of the above

71. ‘Profit objective’ is of least priority in case of—
(A) Private enterprise (B) Public enterprise
(C) Department undertaking (D) Cooperative society

72. Partnership may come into existence by—
(A) The operation of law (B) An express agreement only
(C) An express or implied agreement only (D) Inheritance of property

73. A public company can start business—
(A) After incorporation (B) After promotion
(C) After registration (D) After getting certificate of commencement of business

74. Consumers cooperative store is set up by the—
(A) Central Government (B) State Government
(C) Registrar of Cooperative Societies (D) Members

75. ‘Object Clause’ of a Memorandum of Association can be altered by—
(A) Ordinary resolution (B) Special resolution
(C) Special resolution and confirmation by Registrar of Companies
(D) Special resolution and confirmation by Company Law Board

76. A special resolution is passed in a company meeting by—
(A) Simple majority (B) 2/3 majority
(C) 3/4 majority (D) None of the above

77. Articles of Association of a company can be altered by—
(A) An ordinary resolution (B) A resolution with a special notice
(C) A special resolution (D) None of the above

78. The liability of the shareholders of a public limited company is limited to the extent of—
(A) Par value of the share (B) Paid up value of the shares
(C) Market price of the shares (D) Intrinsic value of the shares

79. The first directors of a company are appointed by—
(A) Promoters (B) Government
(C) Shareholders (D) Company Law Board

80. In a public limited company, the minimum number of directors are—
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 5 (D) None of the above

81. An association of cement manufacturers is an example of—
(A) Diagonal combination (B) Vertical combination
(C) Horizontal combination (D) Lateral combination

82. The product range is widest in case of—
(A) Chain store (B) Departmental store
(C) Speciality shop (D) One price shop

83. A public corporation is set up—
(A) By a Special Act of Parliament (B) By a special order of the Government
(C) Under Indian Companies Act, 1956 (D) By none of the above

84. The minimum number of members required for registration of a cooperative society are—
(A) Two (B) Seven
(C) Ten (D) Twenty

85. Insurable interest must be present at the time of insurance proposal and payment of claims in—
(A) Fire Insurance (B) Marine Insurance
(C) Life Insurance (D) Motor Insurance

86. The technique of “Carrot and Stick” is used in business organization for—
(A) Reducing absenteeism (B) Motivation
(C) Effective leadership (D) Rewarding workers

87. The clearing agent is appointed by the—
(A) Shipping company (B) Custom’s Authority
(C) Importer (D) Exporter

88. The importer cannot take delivery of goods unless he produces the—
(A) Bill of sight (B) Bill of lading
(C) Shipping Bill (D) Mate’s receipt

89. The principle of indemnity is not related to—
(A) Life Insurance (B) Fire Insurance
(C) Marine Insurance (D) Crop Insurance

90. In Marine Insurance, the existence of insurable interest is necessary—
(A) When the loss is caused
(B) When the policy is taken
(C) Both when the policy is taken and when the loss is caused
(D) Throughout the period of contract

91. The liability of a sole proprietor is—
(A) Limited to the extent of his capital invested in the business
(B) Limited to the extent of the value of business assets
(C) Limited to the extent of the value of business assets and his all private assets
(D) None of the above

92. Which of the following documents defines the scope of company’s activities ?
(A) Memorandum of Association (B) Articles of Association
(C) Prospectus (D) Statutory declaration

93. An indent house is one which—
(A) Serves as middleman between importer and exporter of goods for getting orders
(B) Packs and forwards the goods
(C) Guarantees the payments for good
(D) Performs custom formalities on behalf of importer

94. A letter of credit (L/C) is produced by—
(A) An exporter (B) An importer
(C) Custom authorities (D) Shipping company

95. Table ‘A’ of the Companies Act gives a model of—
(A) Minute book (B) Balance Sheet
(C) Memorandum of Association (D) Articles of Association

96. Liability of partners in respect of the firm’s debt is—
(A) Limited to the amount of his capital in the business
(B) Unlimited
(C) Limited to the amount of guarantee given by the partner
(D) Limited to the amount of capital and the loan to the firm, if any

97. A Government Company is one in which at least the following percentage of share capital is held by the Central and/or State Government—
(A) 25% (B) 26%
(C) 50% (D) 51%

98. Planning function of management is performed by—
(A) Top level management (B) Middle level management
(C) Lower level management (D) None of the above

99. Special plans made for facing competition are known as—
(A) Objectives (B) Strategies
(C) Policies (D) Budgets

100. ‘Span of Management’ means—
(A) A good organization should consist of five departments
(B) Authority of each person must be clearly defined
(C) Each subordinate should have one superior
(D) A manager can supervise a limited number of executives

Answers :

1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (B) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (A) 30. (C)
31. (A) 32. (B) 33. (B) 34. (C) 35. (A) 36. (B) 37. (A) 38. (C) 39. (A) 40. (A)
41. (A) 42. (D) 43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (B) 46. (D) 47. (B) 48. (B) 49. (B) 50. (D)
51. (A) 52. (B) 53. (B) 54. (B) 55. (A) 56. (B) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D)
61. (C) 62. (C) 63. (A) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (D) 69. (C) 70. (A)
71. (D) 72. (C) 73. (D) 74. (D) 75. (D) 76. (C) 77. (C) 78. (B) 79. (A) 80. (B)
81. (C) 82. (B) 83. (A) 84. (C) 85. (A) 86. (B) 87. (C) 88. (B) 89. (A) 90. (A)
91. (C) 92. (A) 93. (A) 94. (B) 95. (D) 96. (B) 97. (D) 98. (D) 99. (B) 100. (D)

Combined Defence Services Exam 2012

Union Public Service Commission
Combined Defence Services Exam 2012
General Knowledge Solved Paper

1. Over 90% of the world’s biomass is in–
(A) tropical rain forests (B) freshwater wetlands
(C) topsoils (D) oceans
Ans : (D)

2. Which one of the following is a source of methane emission into the atmosphere ?
(A) Automobile exhaust fume (B) Industrial chimney
(C) Mining (D) Wetland
Ans : (D)

3. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(A) Trophic dynamics represents the transfer of energy from one trophic level to another in a food chain
(B) In deeper parts of oceans, primary production remains almost nil
(C) The primary consumers are called autotrophs
(D) The decomposers are called saprotrophs
Ans : (C)

4. Carbon dioxide is called a greenhouse gas because– 
(A) its concentration remains always higher than other gases. (B) it is used in photosynthesis. 
(C) it absorbs infrared radiation. (D) it emits visible radiation. 
Ans : (C)

5. The fossil of Archaeopteryx represents the evidence of origin of– 
(A) birds from reptiles (B) mammals from reptiles 
(C) reptiles from amphibians (D) mammals from birds 
Ans : (A)

6. Which of the following statements is/are correct? 
1. NIFTY is based upon 50 firms in India. 
2. NIFTY is governed and regulated by the Reserve Bank of India. 
3. NIFTY does not trade in mutual funds. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 
(C) 3 only (D) 1 and 3 
Ans : (A)

7. When the productive capacity of the economic system of a State is inadequate to create sufficient number of jobs, it is called– 
(A) seasonal unemployment. (B) structural unemployment. 
(C) disguised unemployment. (D) cyclical unemployment. 
Ans : (D)

8. Which one of the following is not a Millennium Development Goal of the United Nations? 
(A) Eradicate extreme poverty (B) Reduce birth rate and death rate 
(C) Improve maternal health (D) Promote gender equality 
Ans : (B)

9. Fiscal policy in India is formulated by– 
(A) the Reserve Bank of India (B) the Planning Commission 
(C) the Finance Ministry (D) the Securities and Exchange Board of India 
Ans : (B)

10. Which one of the following is not a clause of World Trade Organisation ? 
(A) Most favoured nation treatment 
(B) Lowering trade barriers with negotiations 
(C) Providing financial support to the countries having deficit balance of payments 
(D) Discouraging unfair trade practices such as anti-dumping and export subsidies 
Ans : (C)

11. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) relate to– 
(A) the World Bank. (B) the Reserve Bank of India.
(C) the World Trade Organisation. (D) the International Monetary Fund. 
Ans : (D)

12. Which one of the following is not a landlocked country in Africa ?
(A) Botswana (B) Zambia 
(C) Lesotho (D) Nigeria 
Ans : (D)

13. The imaginary line on the Earth’s surface that closely follows the 180° Meridian is– 
(A) Prime Meridian (B) Equator 
(C) International Date Line (D) Tropic of Cancer 
Ans : (C)

14. The country that shares longest border with India is– 
(A) China (B) Bangladesh 
(C) Nepal (D) Pakistan 
Ans : (B)

15. The distance between two consecutive longitudes (91°E and 92° E) at the Poles is–
(A) 0 km (B) 18 km 
(C) 25 km (D) 111 km
Ans : (A)

16. Lack of atmosphere around the Moon is due to– 
(A) low escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational attraction. 
(B) high escape velocity of air molecule and low gravitational attraction. 
(C) low gravitational attraction only. 
(D) high escape velocity of air molecule only. 
Ans : (C)

17. Which one of the following correctly defines a unit magnetic pole in SI units? 
It is the pole which when placed in air at a distance of– 
(A) 1 foot from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 pound. 
(B) 1 metre from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 newton. 
(C) 1 cm from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force of 1 dyne. 
(D) 1 metre from an equal and a similar pole repels it with a force 
of 1 newton/m2. 
Ans : (C)

18. After rising a short distance, the smooth column of smoke from a cigarette breaks up into an irregular and random pattern. In a similar fashion, a stream of fluid flowing past an ‘obstacle breaks up into eddies and vortices which give the flow irregular velocity components transverse to the flow direction. Other examples include the wakes left in water by moving ships, the sound produced by whistling and by wind instruments. These examples are the results of– 
(A) laminar flow of air. (B) streamline flow of air. 
(C) turbulent flow of air. (D) viscous flow at low speed. 
Ans : (D)

19. Two identical piano wires have same fundamental frequency when kept under the same tension. What will happen if tension of one of the wires is slightly increased and both the wires are made to vibrate simultaneously ? 
(A) Noise (B) Beats 
(C) Resonance (D) Non-linear effects 
Ans : (B)

20. What is the major role of a greenhouse gas that contributes to temperature rise of the Earth’s surface? 
(A) Transparent to both incoming sunlight aria outgoing infrared radiation 
(B) Stops both incoming sunlight and outgoing infrared radiation 
(C) Lets outgoing infrared radiation pass through but stops incoming sunlight
(D) Lets incoming sunlight pass through but stops outgoing infrared radiation
Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 
1. If a country is experiencing increase in its per capita GDP, its GDP must necessarily be growing. 
2. If a country is experiencing negative inflation, its GDP must be decreasing. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 
Ans : (A)

22. Which of the following measures should be taken when an economy is going through inflationary pressures? 
1. The direct taxes should be increased. 
2. The interest rate should be reduced. 
3. The public spending should be increased. 
Select the correct answer Using the code given below– 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1 and 2 
Ans : (A)

23. The basis of European Union began with the signing of– 
(A) Maastricht Treaty (B) Treaty of Paris 
(C) Treaty of Rome (D) Treaty of Lisbon 
Ans : (A)

24. National income ignores– 
(A) sales of a firm. (B) salary of employees. 
(C) exports of the IT sector. (D) sale of land. 
Ans : (D)

25. What are G. arboreum, G. herbaceum, G. hirsutum and G. barbadense, whose all the four species are cultivated in India ? (G = Gossypium) 
(A) Species of wool (B) Species of cotton 
(C) Species of silk (D) Species of jute 
Ans : (B)

26. The soil formed by wind dust in and around hot deserts is called– 
(A) silty soil (B) loamy soil 
(C) sandy soil (D) loess soil 
Ans : (D)

27. Logically, what does a continually rising air pressure indicate ? 
(A) Advent of unsettled and cloudy weather (B) Advent of a cyclone 
(C) Fine and settled weather (D) Fine and unsettled weather 
Ans : (C)

28. The TEAM-9 initiative is a techno-economic cooperation venture between India and eight countries of– 
(A) West Africa (B) East Africa 
(C) North Africa (D) Central Africa 
Ans : (A)

29. Which one of the following is the type of the Comoros Islands which lie in the Indian Ocean between Northern Madagascar and the African Coast ? 
(A) Volcanic (B) Glacial eroded 
(C) Eolian deposited (D) Folded 
Ans : (A)

30. Which of the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quo warranto? 
1. The office must be public and must be created by a Statute or by the Constitution itself. 
2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another. 
3. There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute or Statutory Instrument, in appointing such person to that office. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below–
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only 
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 
Ans : (D)

31. If news is broadcast from London at 10:30 AM, at what time it will be heard at Baghdad (45° E) ? 
(A) 7:30 AM (B) 9:00 AM 
(C) 1:30 PM (D) 12:00 Noon 
Ans : (C)

32. The site of Harappa is located on the bank of river– 
(A) Saraswati (B) Indus 
(C) Beas (D) Ravi 
Ans : (D)

33. Which one of the following statements regarding Bal Gangadhar Tilak is not correct ? 
(A) He propounded the theory of the Arctic Home of the Aryans 
(B) He founded the Anti-Cow-Killing Society 
(C) He set up the Home Rule League at Poona 
(D) He supported the Age of Consent Bill 
Ans : (D)

34. Which one of the following principles was not propagated by the Theosophical Society ? 
(A) Belief in Karma and Rebirth (B) Belief in Universal Brotherhood and Humanity 
(C) Belief in Vedantic Philosophy (D) Belief in the Eradication of Untouchability 
Ans : (D)

35. Which one of the following statements is correct ? 
(A) The Revolt of 1857 was not supported by the Nizam of Hyderabad 
(B) Dinabandhu Mitra was the author of the book, Unhappy India 
(C) The Sindhias of Gwalior gave shelter to the Rani of Jhansi 
(D) Mangal Pandey led the Sepoys March to Delhi 
Ans : (A)

36. Who among the following Governors-General formed the Triple Alliance against Tipu Sultan ? 
(A) Warren Hastings (B) Lord Cornwallis 
(C) Lord Wellesley (D) Lord William Bentinck 
Ans : (B)

37. Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How do democracies help? 
(A) Women in democracies have equal degree of political representation in legislatures 
(B) Women in democracies have guaranteed rights and are always treated with respect
(C) Women in democracies are not subjected to sex discrimination in most aspects of social life 
(D) In democracies, the principle of equality is accepted as legal norm, which makes it easier to guarantee their freedom and dignity 
Ans : (D)

38. The Constitution of India is republican because it– 
(A) provides for an elected Parliament. (B) provides for adult franchise. 
(C) contains a bill of rights. (D) has no hereditary elements. 
Ans : (D)

39. Assume that India and Pakistan are engaged in an increasingly volatile situation over the LoC in Jammu and Kashmir with a Kargil type infiltration by Pakistan. A conventional war between both the countries is inevitable under the shadow of nuclear weapons. In this situation, what is the nuclear capacity that India should possess against Pakistan to deter a nuclear exchange ? 
(A) A first ‘use nuclear policy’ 
(B) A much larger nuclear arsenal than Pakistan 
(C) A credible nuclear deterrence with second strike capability 
(D) An intercontinental ballistic missile with a range of 5000 km 
Ans : (C)

40. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to Yudh Abhyas ? 
(A) It is an Indian military ‘war game’ with regard to Pakistan 
(B) It is an Indian military exercise with Oman 
(C) It is an Indian military exercise with Bhutan 
(D) It is an Indian military exercise with the US
Ans : (D)

41. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the C-5M Super Galaxy? 
(A) It is a large military helicopter 
(B) It is a large military transport aircraft 
(C) It is a galaxy of stars very close to the Sun 
(D) It is a US fighter aircraft to be completed in 2014 
Ans : (B)

42. Consider the following statements– 
1. The Kalinga Prize is an award given by UNESCO for exceptional skill in presenting scientific ideas to lay people. 
2. Dorairajan Balasubramanian was the last person from India to receive the Kalinga Prize. 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 
Ans : (A)

43. Which one of the following companies received Golden Peacock Environment Management Award for the year 2011 ? 
Ans : (C)

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List-I (Short-listed Book for DSC Prize for South Asian Literature, 2012) 
A. Bharathipura B. A Street in Srinagar 
C. Chinaman D. The Story that must not be told 
List-II (Author) 
1. Kavery Nambisan 2. Shehan Karunatilaka 
3. Chandrakanta 4. U.R. Ananthamurthy 
A B C D 
(A) 4 2 3 1 
(B) 1 2 3 4 
(C) 4 3 2 1 
(D) 1 3 2 4 
Ans : (C)

45. In which one of the following Latin American countries, a woman has for the first time won the presidential elections for the second term ? 
(A) Brazil (B) Venezuela 
(C) Uruguay (D) Argentina 
Ans : (D)

46. Which one of the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under the Constitution of India ? 
(A) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countiies 
(B) To protect monuments of national importance 
(C) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so 
(D) To know more and more about the history of India 
Ans : (C)

47. Which one of the following statements is correct ? 
(A) Due to border problems, India’s trade with China did not register a quantum jump between the years 2001-2010 
(B) The stand-off between India and China on Pakistan and Arunachal Pradesh did not let India’s trade to grow with China in the years 2001-2010 as much as it grew in the years 1991-2001 
(C) While India-China trade has registered a quantum jump between the years 2001-2010, both the countries have ensured parity of trade 
(D) In spite of border problems, India’s trade with China registered a quantum jump during the years 2001-2010 
Ans : (D)

48. Which one of the following statements about globalisation is not correct? 
(A) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic growth 
(B) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in greater economic disparity 
(C) Advocates of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenisation 
(D) Critics of globalisation argue that it will result in cultural homogenisation 
Ans : (D)

49. The best colours for a Sun umbrella will be– 
(A) black on top and red on inside. (B) black on top and white on inside. 
(C) red on top and black on inside. (D) white on top and black on inside. 
Ans : (D)

50. Before X-ray examination (coloured X-ray) of the stomach, patients are given suitable salt of barium because– 
(A) barium salts are white in colour and this helps stomach to appear clearly. 
(B) barium is a good absorber of X-rays and helps stomach to appear dearly. 
(C) barium salts are easily available. 
(D) barium allows X-rays to pass through the stomach. 
Ans : (B)

51. The elements of a group in the periodic table– 
(A) have similar chemical properties. (B) have consecutive atomic numbers. 
(C) are isobars. (D) are isotopes. 
Ans : (A)

52. Which one of the following polymers is used for making bulletproof material ? 
(A) Polyvinyl chloride (B) Polystyrene 
(C) Polyethylene (D) Polyamide 
Ans : (C)

53. The pH of human blood is normally around– 
(A) 4.5–5.5 (B) 5.5–6.5 
(C) 7.5–8.0 (D) 8.5–9.0 
Ans : (C)

54. The pH of fresh groundwater slightly decreases upon exposure to air because– 
(A) carbon dioxide from air is dissolved in the water. 
(B) oxygen from air is dissolved in the water. 
(C) the dissolved carbon dioxide of the groundwater escapes into air. 
(D) the dissolved oxygen of the groundwater escapes into air. 
Ans : (A)

55. Who won the Wimbledon 2011 men’s singles tide ? 
(A) Novak Djokovic (B) Roger Federer 
(C) Rafael Nadal (D) Andy Roddick 
Ans : (A)

56. Which among the following countries has recently decided to give a grant of US $1 billion for the reconstruction of the Nalanda University? 
(A) USA (B) China 
(C) UK (D) Japan 
Ans : (B)

57. Which one Of the following is the fastest Indian Supercomputer recently developed by ISRO ? 
(A) Aakash-A1 (B) Saga-220 
(C) Jaguar-Cray (D) Tianhe-lA 
Ans : (B)

58. The year 2011 has been celebrated by UNESCO and IUPAC as International Year of Chemistry to mark the 100 years of Nobel Prize winning by Marie Curie in Chemistry. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 
1. The unified theme of the celebration is Chemistry—our life, our future. 
2. The celebrations are made to mark the contributions of women to the development of science. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans : (A)

59. In February 2011, which of the following countries has elected Mr. Thein Sein, a military general- turned-civilian leader, as its first President ? 
(A) Malaysia (B) Costa Rica 
(C) Thailand (D) Myanmar 
Ans : (D)

60. Which one of the following vitamins is necessary for blood clotting? 
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin D 
(C) Vitamin K (D) Vitamin C 
Ans : (C)
61. Indian Space Research Organisation and the Airport Authority of India have recently signed a memorandum of understanding to install a space-based augmentation system (SBAS) to render the Global Positioning System signal suitable for civil aviation over the Indian airspace. What is the name of the SBAS ? 
Ans : (A)

62. World’s first gold and jewellery-encrusted car—Gold Plus, was unveiled in the year 2011 as a tribute to 5000 years of Indian jewellery making. Who among the following was the maker of the car?
(A) Tata Motors (B) Maruti Suzuki
(C) Hundai (D) Volkswagen
Ans : (A)

63. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
The word ‘socialist’ in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with–
(A) Article 39 (d), would enable the Court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalisation laws
(B) Article 14, would enable the Court to strike down a statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent
(C) Article 25, would enable the Court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article
(D) Article 23, would enable the Court to reduce inequality in income and status
Ans : (A)

64. Suppose a legislation was passed by the Parliament imposing certain restrictions on newspapers. These included page ceiling, price and advertisements. The legislation is included in the Ninth Schedule to the Constitution of India. In this context, which one of the following statements is correct?
(A) The legislation is invalid as it violates the freedom of Press. 
(B) The legislation is valid by virtue of Article 31B. 
(C) The legislation is invalid as it imposes unreasonable restrictions under Article 19(2) of the Constitution. 
(D) The legislation is valid as the Press is not a citizen under Article 19 of the Constitution. 
Ans : (B)

65. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one of the following statements is not correct ? 
(A) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha 
(B) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill 
(C) The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement. 
(D) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for Grants 
Ans : (C)

66. The Nehru-Mahalanobis strategy of development guided the planning practice in India from the– 
(A) First Five-Year Plan to the Sixth Five-Year Plan. 
(B) Fourth Five-Year Plan to the Eighth Five-Year Plan. 
(C) Second Five-Year Plan to the Seventh Five-Year Plan. 
(D) First Five-Year Plan to the Eighth Five-Year Plan. 
Ans : (C)

67. While a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period– 
(A) not exceeding three months (B) not exceeding nine months 
(C) of one year at a time (D) of two years at a time 
Ans : (C)

68. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List-I (Joint Naval Exercise) 
A. Konkan B. Malabar 
C. Varuna D. Indra 
List-II (Countries) 
1. India-France 2. India-United Kingdom 
3. India-Russia 4. India-United States 
A B C D 
(A) 2 1 4 3 
(B) 3 4 1 2 
(C) 3 1 4 2 
(D) 2 4 1 3 
Ans : (D)

69. If you travel along the Suez Canal from Port Said to Suez, you will come across several lakes. Which of the following lakes is not on this Canal? 
(A) Great Bitter Lake (B) Little Bitter Lake 
(C) Lake Gatun (D) Lake Timsah 
Ans : (C)

70. Xerophytes represent the class of vegetation found in– 
(A) tropical rain forest. (B) humid micro-thermal climate. 
(C) semi-arid steppes. (D) tundra region. 
Ans : (C)

71. What is a clud burst ? 
(A) It refers to sudden and copious rainfall over a small area which often lasts for only a few minutes 
(B) It refers to 50 mm rain over a period of time 
(C) It is caused by rapid condensation of very high clouds 
(D) It refers to a thunderstorm with little rain 
Ans : (A)

72. Which one of the following is not correct regarding Tsunami ? 
(A) Tsunamis have a very long wavelength 
b) Tsunamis have a slight swell of about twelve inches above the normal sea surface 
(C) Tsunamis grow in height when they reach shallower water 
(D) Tides also play an important role in the generation of Tsunamis 
Ans : (D)

73. Which one of the following statements regarding India’s coal is not correct? 
(A) 98 percent of reserves of coal in India belongs to Gondwana period 
(B) Unknown amount of coal lies buried under the Ganga alluvium and the Deccan Trap 
(C) Bituminous coal is found in both lower Gondwana rocks and in Tertiary rocks 
(D) Gondwana coal is mainly found in the river valleys of Damodar, Mahanadi and Godavari 
Ans : (C)

74. Consider the following statements– 
1. Coriolis effect is zero at the Equator. 
2. Coriolis effect is more towards the Poles. 
3. Coriolis effects are related to the decreasing rotational velocity with increasing latitudes. 
4. Coriolis effects are related to the increasing rotational velocity with increasing latitudes. 
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1 and 3 only 
(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 2 and 4 only
Ans : (A)

75. The Viceregal Lodge at Shimla is a well-known ancient monument. Which of the following statements about the monument are correct ? 
1. The Lodge was built by 17th Viceroy, Earl Dufferin. 
2. The present shape of the building was given by Earl of Marquis of Lansdowne. 
3. It is famous for holding three meetings before Independence of India including the Cabinet Mission. 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 only 
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1 and 2 only 
Ans : (B)

76. The macro-nutrients provided by inorganic fertilisers are– 
(A) carbon, iron and boron. (B) magnesium, manganese and sulphur. 
(C) magnesium, zinc and iron. (D) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium. 
Ans : (D)

77. The ultimate cause of water movement in a plant stem against gravity is– 
(A) osmosis (B) transpiration 
(C) photosynthesis (D) diffusion 
Ans : (B)

78. Vermicompost is a/an– 
(A) inorganic fertiliser (B) toxic substance 
(C) organic biofertiliser (D) synthetic fertiliser 
Ans : (C)

79. In wildlife conservation, which one of the following best defines an ‘endemic’ species? 
(A) When the critical number of a species declines in a forest due to parasitic attack 
(B) A species which is cosmopolitan and can be commonly found in a biosphere 
(C) An endangered species which is found in a few restricted areas on the Earth 
(D) A species confined to a particular region and not found anywhere else 
Ans : (D)

80. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists–
List-I (Tiger Reserve) 
A. Indravati B. Periyar 
C. Simlipal D. Bandipur 
List-II (State) 
1. Karnataka 2. Odisha 
3. Kerala 4. Chhattisgarh 
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (C)

81. Duncan Passage is located between– 
(A) South and Little Andaman. (B) Little and Great Nicobar. 
(C) North and Middle Andaman. (D) Middle and South Andaman. 
Ans : (A)

82. Consider the following statements– 
1. Ozone is mostly found in the stratosphere. 
2. Ozone layer lies 55-75 km above the surface of the Earth. 
3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the Sun. 
4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on the Earth. 
Which of the statements given above are correct? 
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3 
(C) 2 and 3 (D) 3 and 4 
Ans : (B)

83. The main area of production of icebergs is found in– 
(A) the West Coast of Greenland. (B) the East Coast of Japan. 
(C) the North Coast of Siberia. (D) the West Coast of Africa. 
Ans : (A)

84. Match List-I with List-II (and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists –
List-I (Battle) 
A. The Third Carnatic War B. The Third Mysore War 
C. The First Maratha War D. The First Anglo-Sikh War 
List-II (Treaty) 
1. Treaty of Salbai 2. Treaty of Lahore 
3. Treaty of Paris 4. Treaty of Srirangapatam 
A B C D 
(A) 2 1 4 3 
(B) 2 4 1 3 
(C) 3 4 1 2 
(D) 3 1 4 2 
Ans : (C)

85. The Operation Polo was associated with the annexation of which one of the following Princely States into Indian Union? 
(A) Kashmir (B) Junagadh 
(C) Travancore (D) Hyderabad 
Ans : (D)

86. The name of Ram Prasad Bismil is associated with–
(A) Kanpur Conspiracy Case (B) Alipore Conspiracy Case 
(C) Kakori Conspiracy Case (D) Meerut Conspiracy Case 
Ans : (C)

87. Which one of the following was not a demand of the Prarthana Samaj ? 
(A) Women education (B) Widow remarriage 
(C) Raising the age of marriage for boys and girls (D) Abolition of untouchability 
Ans : (D)

88. Which of the following statements about Permanent Settlement are correct? 
1. It conferred proprietary rights to peasants. 
2. The Zamindars were recognised as the proprietors of land. 
3. The government permanently fixed the land revenue demand. 
4. The Zamindars acted as the middlemen between the peasants and the government. 
Select the correct answer using-the code given below– 
(A) 2, 3 and 4 (B) 3 and 4 only 
(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1 and 3 
Ans : (A)

89. Which one of the following nontoxic gases helps in formation of enzymes which ripen fruit? 
(A) Acetylene (B) Ethane 
(C) Methane (D) Carbon dioxide 
Ans : (B)

90. Age of fossil may be found out by determining the ratio of two isotopes of carbon. The isotopes are– 
(A) C-12 and C-13 (B) C-13 and C-14 
(C) C-12 and C-14 (D) C-12 and carbon black 
Ans : (C)

91. Who among the following Chinese travellers visited the kingdoms of Harshavardhana and Kumar Bhaskar Varma? 
(A) I-tsing (B) Fa-Hien 
(C) Hiuen Tsang (D) Sun Shuyun 
Ans : (C)

92. Which one of the following Indus cities was known for water management? 
(A) Lothal (B) Mohenjo-Daro 
(C) Harappa (D) Dholavira 
Ans : (B)

93. Consider the following statements– 
According to Hindu Law, marriage is defined as
1. a contract 2. a sacrament 
3. mutual understanding 4. indissoluble 
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ? 
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 
(C) 1 and 3 (D) 2 and 4
Ans : (D)

94. Which one of the following States was first annexed by Lord Dalhousie under the Doctrine of Lapse ? 
(A) Nagpur (B) Jhansi 
(C) Sambalpur (D) Satara 
Ans : (D)

95. Identify the correct sequence of the following events of Indian history (starting with the earliest)– 
1. The Doctrine of Lapse 2. The Subsidiary Alliance 
3. The Treaty of Lahore 4. The Pitt’s India Act 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
(A) 4 - 2 - 3 - 1 (B) 1 - 2 - 3 - 4 
(C) 2 - 1 - 4 - 3 (D) 3 - 2 - 1 - 4 
Ans : (A)

96. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists– 
List-I (Social Reformer) 
A. Iyothee Thass B. Jyotiba Phule 
C. John Rathinam D. E.V. Ramaswami Naickar 
List-II (Association) 
1. Satyashodhak Samaj 2. Dravida Kazhagam 
3. Self-Respect Movement 4. Dravida Mahajana Sabha 
A B C D 
(A) 4 2 1 3
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans : (C)

97. Which one of the following statements regarding Jorwe Culture is not correct ? 
(A) Pravara-Godavari Valley was the nuclear zone of Jorwe Culture 
(B) The main sites of Jorwe Culture are Daimabad, Inamgaon, Jorwe and Nevasa 
(C) At Daimabad, one gets archaeological evidence of symbolic burial 
(D) Practically all Jorwe settlements in the Northern Deccan were suddenly deserted 
Ans : (D)

98. Ashokan inscriptions of Mansehra and Shahbazgadhi are written in– 
(A) Prakrit language, Kharoshthi script. (B) Prakrit language, Brahmi script. 
(C) Prakrit-Aramaic language, Brahmi script. (D) Aramaic language, Kharoshthi script. 
Ans : (A)

99. Who among the following scholars were contemporary of Kanishka ? 
1. Ashvaghosa 2. Nagarjuna 
3. Vasumitra 4. Chanakya 
Select the correct answer using the code given below– 
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 3 and 4 
(C) 2 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3 
Ans : (D)

100. Sabin Award is given for the conservation of– 
(A) amphibians (B) reptiles 
(C) birds (D) corals 
Ans : (A)

101. The Indian research station Himadri is located at– 
(A) Siachen (B) Darjeeling 
(C) Arctic Region (D) Antarctica 
Ans : (C)

102. The year 2011 was the centenary year for which one of the following policy-making bodies of the Government of India in scientific research and development ? 
Ans : (C)

103. In the year 2011, NASA launched a mission to study the Moon from ‘crust to core’ through its– 
(A) Gravity Recovery and Interior Laboratory 
(B) Fast Auroral Snapshot Explorer Spacecraft 
(C) Ultraviolet Spec troscopic Explorer Spacecraft 
(D) Transition Region and Coronal Explorer Spacecraft 
Ans : (A)

104. In the year 2011, a scientist from USA discovered ‘BISIN’, which– 
(A) is a natural preservative and can extend food’s life for several years. (B) can insulate cells of brain. 
(C) claims for fastest prevention of bacterial infection. (D) is a distant galaxy. 
Ans : (A)

105. In the year 2011, a missile named ‘PRAHAR’, developed by DRDO, was test-fired, This is a– 
(A) short-range surface to air missile. (B) long-range surface to air missile. 
(C) short-range surface to surface missile. (D) long-range surface to surface missile. 
Ans : (C)

106. Which one of the following statements is correct? 
(A) All proteins are enzymes (B) All enzymes are proteins 
(C) None of the enzymes is protein (D) None of the proteins is enzyme 
Ans : (B)

107. Which one of the following statements is correct ? 
(A) All bases are alkalis (B) None of the bases is alkali 
(C) There are no more bases except the alkalis (D) All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis 
Ans : (D)

108. Suppose a terrorist group has laid siege to the Hazratbal Shrine in Srinagar, Kashmir. They have also taken around 80 civilians hostage. Which one of the following will be the best response by the security forces in this situation ? 
(A) Threaten the terrorists using loudspeakers with immediate military action, unless they surrender 
(B) Surround the mosque with visible army deployment and then attack the mosque 
(C) Carry out a joint army-air force raid on the mosque 
(D) Negotiate with the terrorists by utilising a local mediator to buy time and then send in special National Security Guard (NSG) commandos 
Ans : (D)

109. Which one of the following statements about NATO is not correct? 
(A) NATO is a collective defence organisation in Europe (B) The US is an ex-officio member of NATO 
(C) Turkey is a member of NATO (D) NATO has 28 independent member States 
Ans : (B)

110. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged a– 
(A) Federation (B) Confederation 
(C) Unitary form of Government (D) Union of States 
Ans : (A)

111. The National Commission for Women was created–by 
(A) an amendment in the Constitution of India. (B) a decision of the Union Cabinet. 
(C) an Act passed by the Parliament. (D) an order of the President of India. 
Ans : (C)

112. Under which law it is prescribed that all proceedings in the Supreme Court of India shall be in English language? 
(A) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966 (B) A Legislation made by the Parliament 
(C) Article 145 of the Constitution of India (D) Article 348 of the Constitution of India 
Ans : (D)

113. Which one of the following reactions is the main cause of the energy radiation from the Sun? 
(A) Fusion reaction (B) Fission reaction 
(C) Chemical reaction (D) Diffusion reaction
Ans : (A)

114. In SONAR, we use– 
(A) ultrasonic waves. (B) infrasonic waves. 
(C) radio waves. (D) audible sound waves. 
Ans : (A)

115. A liquid is kept in a regular cylindrical vessel up to a certain height. If this vessel is replaced by another cylindrical vessel, having half the area of cross-section of the bottom, the pressure on the bottom will– 
(A) remain unaffected. (B) be reduced to half the earlier pressure. 
(C) be increased to twice the earlier pressure. (D) be reduced to one-fourth the earlier pressure. 
Ans : (C)

116. The time period of a simple pendulum having a spherical wooden bob is 2 s. If the bob is replaced by a metallic one twice as heavy, the time period will be– 
(A) more than 2 s (B) 2 s 
(C) 1 s (D) less than 1 s 
Ans : (B)

117. Which one of the following statements about an atom is not correct? 
(A) Atoms always combine to form molecules 
(B) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and ions are formed 
(C) A toms are always neutral in nature 
(D) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter that we can see, feel and touch 
Ans : (C)

118. China recently objected to the participation of an Indian company in its joint venture with another country for offshore oil exploration. Which one of the following is that country? 
(A) Myanmar (B) South Korea 
(C) Taiwan (D) Vietnam 
Ans : (D)

119. Which one of the following statements is correct ? 
The current Prime Minister of Nepal Dr. Baburam Bhattarai is heading a 
(A) consensus government of all major political parties of Nepal. 
(B) Nepali Congress-Maoist-U’ML coalition government. 
(C) Nepali. Congress-Maoist coalition government. 
(D) Maoist-Madhesi coalition government. 
Ans : (D)

120. An African country, Sudan has been broken into two recently with formation of a new country named South Sudan. Economy of South Sudan will depend on its– 
(A) agricultural product (B) minerals 
(C) forest product (D) fishery product
Ans : (A)